NCLEX- RN Practice Exam 3

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answer:

A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) is a serious cardiac arrhythmia that originates in the ventricles and can lead to ventricular fibrillation, a life-threatening condition. Patients with a history of VT and syncopal episodes (fainting spells due to lack of blood flow to the brain) are at high risk for sudden cardiac arrest. An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator (AICD) is implanted in these patients to monitor their heart rhythm continuously and deliver an electric shock if a life-threatening arrhythmia is detected, thereby preventing sudden death.

Think of an AICD as a vigilant lifeguard always watching for danger. If the heart starts to "drown" in an abnormal rhythm, the lifeguard jumps in to save it with a shock, bringing it back to safety.

The implantation of an AICD is indicated in patients with a significant risk of sudden cardiac death due to ventricular arrhythmias. This device significantly improves survival rates by providing immediate treatment for potentially fatal arrhythmias. Nurses must educate patients about the importance of this device, the procedure, and postoperative care to ensure optimal outcomes.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and persistent fatigue. Atrial tachycardia, while concerning, is typically less dangerous than ventricular tachycardia. It often causes symptoms such as fatigue and palpitations but does not usually pose an immediate risk of sudden cardiac death, making an AICD unnecessary.

A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without significant cardiac muscle damage. Patients who have experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) but have not sustained significant damage to the cardiac muscle are not typically candidates for an AICD. Their risk of developing life-threatening arrhythmias is lower compared to those with substantial heart damage.

A postoperative coronary bypass patient who is recovering as expected. A patient recovering from coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) surgery with an expected recovery does not typically require an AICD. The procedure is generally reserved for patients with severe ventricular arrhythmias or those at high risk of sudden cardiac death.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answer:

The patient will be admitted to the surgical unit for immediate preparation for surgical repair. A rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a life-threatening condition that requires urgent surgical intervention. An AAA is an abnormal dilation of the aorta as it passes through the abdomen, and rapid enlargement increases the risk of rupture, which can lead to catastrophic internal bleeding and death. Immediate preparation for surgical repair is essential to prevent rupture and manage the aneurysm effectively. This may involve open surgical repair or endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR), depending on the patient's condition and the specifics of the aneurysm.

Imagine a balloon being inflated beyond its capacity. As it rapidly expands, the risk of it bursting increases significantly. Immediate action is needed to either release the pressure or reinforce the balloon to prevent it from bursting.

Managing an AAA involves rapid assessment and intervention. Nurses play a critical role in monitoring vital signs, preparing the patient for surgery, and providing preoperative and postoperative care. Understanding the urgency of surgical repair for a rapidly enlarging AAA is crucial for patient survival. Patients may present with symptoms such as severe abdominal or back pain, hypotension, and signs of shock if the aneurysm is close to rupturing.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

The patient will be admitted to the medical unit for observation and medication. Observation and medication alone are not appropriate for a rapidly enlarging AAA due to the high risk of imminent rupture. Immediate surgical intervention is required.

The patient will be sent home with instructions to follow up with his cardiologist in 24 hours. Sending the patient home is extremely dangerous and inappropriate for a rapidly enlarging AAA. This condition requires immediate surgical intervention to prevent rupture and potential death.

The patient will be admitted for a minor procedure in the day surgery unit. A rapidly enlarging AAA requires major surgical intervention, not a minor procedure. It must be addressed in a surgical unit equipped for significant vascular surgery.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answer:

Vastus lateralis. The vastus lateralis muscle, located on the anterolateral aspect of the thigh, is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in infants under one year of age. This muscle is well-developed even in very young infants and is free of major blood vessels and nerves, making it a safe and effective site for injections. It provides sufficient muscle mass for the absorption of medication and minimizes the risk of injury.

Think of the vastus lateralis as a large, open field with no obstacles, making it a safe place to land a helicopter (or give an injection) without hitting anything important.

When administering intramuscular injections to infants, the vastus lateralis is chosen due to its large muscle mass and accessibility. The infant's gluteal muscles are not yet fully developed, and there is a higher risk of damaging the sciatic nerve if injections are given in the gluteal region. Proper technique and site selection are crucial to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the medication being administered.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

Vastus medialis. The vastus medialis muscle, located on the medial side of the thigh, is not typically used for intramuscular injections in infants due to its smaller size and less accessibility compared to the vastus lateralis.

Gluteus maximus. The gluteus maximus muscle is not recommended for intramuscular injections in infants because it is not well-developed and there is a significant risk of damaging the sciatic nerve.

Gluteus minimus. The gluteus minimus muscle, located deeper and under the gluteus medius, is also not used for intramuscular injections in infants for similar reasons as the gluteus maximus; it is not sufficiently developed and carries a risk of nerve damage.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answer:

A history of hepatitis C five years previously. A history of hepatitis C infection is a contraindication for blood donation, regardless of how long ago the infection occurred. Hepatitis C is a viral infection that affects the liver and can be transmitted through blood. Even if the donor is currently asymptomatic or has been treated, there remains a risk of transmitting the virus through blood transfusion, posing a serious risk to the recipient, particularly vulnerable patients like those with leukemia.

Donating blood with a history of hepatitis C is like using a previously contaminated needle for an injection—it may look clean, but the risk of passing on infection remains high.

Ensuring the safety of the blood supply is paramount in transfusion medicine. Blood donors are carefully screened for a history of infectious diseases, such as hepatitis C, to prevent transmission to recipients. Leukemia patients, in particular, have compromised immune systems and are at increased risk for severe complications from transfusions with infected blood. Thus, anyone with a history of hepatitis C is permanently deferred from donating blood to maintain the highest safety standards in blood transfusion practices.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

History of cholecystitis requiring cholecystectomy one year previously. A history of cholecystitis and subsequent cholecystectomy does not disqualify someone from donating blood. This condition is related to the gallbladder and does not affect the blood’s safety for transfusion.

Asymptomatic diverticulosis. Diverticulosis, especially when asymptomatic, does not prevent blood donation. It is a condition of the colon and does not affect blood quality or safety.

Crohn’s disease currently in remission. While Crohn’s disease is a chronic condition affecting the digestive tract, if it is in remission and the donor is otherwise healthy, they may still be eligible to donate blood. However, active disease or certain medications might temporarily defer donation.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answer:

The patient has a pacemaker. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) uses strong magnetic fields and radio waves to create detailed images of the inside of the body. For patients with pacemakers, undergoing an MRI scan can be dangerous because the magnetic field can interfere with the functioning of the pacemaker. This interference can lead to malfunctioning of the pacemaker, inappropriate pacing, or even complete failure of the device, posing a significant risk to the patient’s life.

Think of a pacemaker as a small, delicate electronic device. Exposing it to the strong magnets of an MRI is like putting your smartphone inside a powerful magnetic field—it could cause serious malfunctions or damage.

Before an MRI, a thorough patient assessment is crucial to identify any contraindications. Devices like pacemakers and certain other implants may be MRI-unsafe, requiring alternative imaging methods such as CT scans. It is essential for nurses to check the type and model of the pacemaker, as some newer models are designed to be MRI-conditional, meaning they can be safely scanned under specific conditions.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

The patient has an allergy to shellfish. An allergy to shellfish is not a contraindication for MRI. Allergies to shellfish are typically relevant for contrast agents used in CT scans (iodine-based) and not for MRI, which uses gadolinium-based contrast agents if contrast is needed at all.

The patient is taking antipsychotic medication. Taking antipsychotic medication is not a contraindication for MRI. However, the patient’s ability to stay still during the scan and their mental status should be evaluated to ensure they can comply with the procedure requirements.

The patient suffers from claustrophobia. Claustrophobia is not a contraindication but a consideration. Patients with claustrophobia may require pre-procedure anxiety management strategies such as mild sedation, open MRI options, or the use of a wide-bore MRI machine to make the experience more tolerable.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answers:

Mouth is rinsed with water following administration. Rinsing the mouth with water after using a corticosteroid inhaler helps prevent oral thrush (a fungal infection) and reduces the risk of hoarseness. This is an important step to ensure proper oral hygiene and minimize side effects associated with corticosteroid use.

The inhaler is held upright. Holding the inhaler upright ensures the medication is delivered properly. This position allows the propellant to work effectively, ensuring the correct dose is administered.

Using an MDI correctly is like using a spray can of paint. You need to hold it upright and spray evenly to get the best coverage.

Proper technique in using a metered dose inhaler is crucial for effective medication delivery to the lungs. Patients must be taught to hold the inhaler upright, coordinate inhalation with actuation, and rinse their mouths after using corticosteroids to prevent infections and ensure the medication reaches the lower respiratory tract efficiently. These steps improve the efficacy of the treatment and minimize potential side effects.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

Client lies supine for 15 minutes following administration. Lying supine is not necessary after using an inhaler. Proper technique involves sitting or standing to ensure optimal lung expansion and medication delivery.

Client waits 5 minutes between puffs. The recommended waiting time between puffs for most MDIs is typically about 1 minute, not 5 minutes. Waiting too long may reduce the effectiveness of the medication.

Head is tilted down while inhaling the medication. The head should be slightly tilted back to open the airway and ensure the medication is inhaled deeply into the lungs. Tilting the head down can hinder proper delivery of the medication to the lower respiratory tract.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answer:

Check for signs of bleeding, including examination of urine and stool for blood. A platelet count of 25,000/microliter is significantly low and puts the patient at high risk for bleeding. Platelets are crucial for blood clotting, and low levels can lead to spontaneous bleeding or excessive bleeding from minor injuries. Therefore, the primary nursing action should be to check for signs of bleeding. This includes examining urine and stool for blood, checking for petechiae, ecchymosis, bleeding gums, and other signs of internal or external bleeding. Prompt identification of bleeding is essential to prevent severe hemorrhagic complications.

Think of platelets as tiny workers that help patch up holes in a leaky pipe. When there aren't enough workers, the pipe (or body) is more likely to spring a leak, so you need to be vigilant and check for any signs of leakage (bleeding).

In patients with thrombocytopenia, nursing care should focus on preventing bleeding and managing any bleeding that occurs. This includes implementing bleeding precautions such as using soft toothbrushes, avoiding invasive procedures when possible, and educating the patient on avoiding activities that could lead to injury. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial for timely intervention, which may include platelet transfusions or other medical treatments.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

Consider transfusion of packed red blood cells. While transfusions of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) may be necessary for patients with anemia or low hemoglobin levels, they do not address thrombocytopenia. Platelet transfusions would be more appropriate for a low platelet count.

Monitor for fever every 4 hours. Monitoring for fever is important in immunocompromised patients like those undergoing chemotherapy, but it does not directly address the immediate risk posed by a low platelet count, which is bleeding.

Require visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing. Requiring visitors to wear protective clothing and masks is an infection control measure, useful in protecting immunocompromised patients from infections. However, it does not address the specific issue of a low platelet count and the associated bleeding risk.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answers:

Color of nail beds. Assessing the color of nail beds is important because it can indicate oxygenation status. Cyanosis (a bluish tint) of the nail beds can suggest hypoxemia, a common complication in pneumonia.

Presence of chest pain. Chest pain can be a symptom of pleuritic pain, which is often associated with pneumonia. It can also help in identifying complications like pleurisy or pleural effusion.

Auscultation of breath sounds. Auscultating breath sounds is crucial in assessing a client with pneumonia. Abnormal breath sounds such as crackles, wheezes, or diminished breath sounds can provide information on the extent and location of the infection, fluid accumulation, and airway obstruction.

Think of assessing pneumonia like checking a car's engine and exhaust. You look at the smoke (breath sounds), check if the engine is overheating (chest pain), and make sure the fuel is burning correctly (nail bed color indicating oxygenation).

Pneumonia primarily affects the respiratory system, so assessing respiratory status is paramount. Monitoring for hypoxemia (via nail bed color), identifying pleuritic pain, and evaluating breath sounds help determine the severity of the infection and guide treatment. Early detection of complications such as pleural effusion or respiratory distress can significantly impact patient outcomes.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

Auscultation of bowel sounds. While important in general assessments, bowel sounds are not a priority in a client with pneumonia. Pneumonia primarily affects the lungs, and gastrointestinal assessments are less relevant in this context.

Presence of peripheral edema. Peripheral edema is not a primary concern in pneumonia. It is more commonly associated with cardiovascular conditions or severe systemic issues. In the context of pneumonia, focusing on respiratory assessments is more critical.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answer:

Contact the Poison Control Center quickly. The most important instruction is to contact the Poison Control Center quickly. The Poison Control Center has experts who can provide immediate, specific advice on managing poisoning incidents based on the type of substance ingested, the amount, and the symptoms the child is exhibiting. They can guide the parent on whether to induce vomiting, administer any immediate treatments, or go directly to the emergency room. This step ensures that the parent receives accurate, expert advice tailored to the specific situation.

Think of the Poison Control Center as a specialized help desk for emergencies involving toxic substances. They have the expertise to provide the best immediate advice, just like calling tech support for a specific computer issue.

In cases of poisoning, it is crucial to avoid actions that could potentially worsen the situation. Inducing vomiting or giving certain substances without professional guidance can cause more harm. The Poison Control Center can provide detailed instructions based on the latest toxicology information and the specifics of the case, ensuring the child receives the safest and most effective care.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

Administer syrup of ipecac to the child. Administering syrup of ipecac to induce vomiting is no longer recommended because it can cause further injury and complicate treatment. The decision to induce vomiting should be made by a healthcare professional.

Take the child immediately to the emergency room. While taking the child to the emergency room may be necessary, contacting the Poison Control Center first can provide crucial initial management advice and help determine the urgency and specific care needed.

Reassure the parent that this will resolve on its own. This advice is dangerous and inappropriate. Ingesting cleaning fluid is a medical emergency that requires immediate professional guidance to prevent serious harm.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answer:

Bowel perforation. Bowel perforation is the most immediate concern for a patient experiencing increasing abdominal pain, fever, and chills following a fiberoptic colonoscopy. This condition occurs when a hole forms in the wall of the gastrointestinal tract, potentially allowing the contents of the bowel to leak into the abdominal cavity. This can lead to peritonitis, a life-threatening infection. The symptoms described are classic signs of a perforated bowel, and immediate medical intervention is required to prevent severe complications.

Imagine a pipe bursting in your home. The water leaking out represents bowel contents leaking into the abdomen, causing damage and infection. Quick repair is essential to prevent extensive damage.

A perforated bowel is a surgical emergency. It can result from complications during procedures like colonoscopy where the bowel wall may be accidentally punctured. Symptoms such as severe abdominal pain, fever, and chills indicate the possibility of an infection spreading rapidly within the abdominal cavity (peritonitis). Immediate diagnostic imaging (e.g., X-ray, CT scan) and surgical consultation are crucial. The patient may require antibiotics and emergency surgery to repair the perforation and address any ensuing infection.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

Viral gastroenteritis. Viral gastroenteritis is characterized by symptoms such as diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps. However, it is less likely to cause severe pain, fever, and chills following a recent colonoscopy, and these symptoms do not typically present as acutely or severely as with a bowel perforation.

Diverticulitis. Diverticulitis involves inflammation of the diverticula in the colon and can cause abdominal pain and fever. While it can be serious, it is less immediately life-threatening than a perforated bowel and would not be as directly related to a recent colonoscopy unless there was an existing condition that was exacerbated.

Colon cancer. Colon cancer is a serious condition but typically presents with chronic symptoms such as changes in bowel habits, blood in the stool, and unexplained weight loss. The acute presentation of severe pain, fever, and chills shortly after a colonoscopy is more indicative of an immediate complication like a bowel perforation rather than colon cancer.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answer:

Consumption of contaminated food. Hepatitis A is most commonly transmitted through the fecal-oral route, which often involves the consumption of contaminated food or water. This occurs when food or water is contaminated with feces from an infected person. The virus can be spread in settings with poor sanitation and hygiene practices, including food handling and preparation.

Think of Hepatitis A like a germ that hitchhikes on food. If the food isn't handled properly and gets contaminated, anyone who eats it can get infected.

Hepatitis A is a highly contagious liver infection caused by the hepatitis A virus (HAV). Preventative measures include practicing good hand hygiene, ensuring safe food and water sources, and receiving the hepatitis A vaccine. It's important to educate patients on these preventive strategies, particularly in areas where hepatitis A is common or during outbreaks.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

Blood transfusion. Hepatitis A is not typically transmitted through blood transfusions. This mode of transmission is more commonly associated with hepatitis B and hepatitis C.

Sexual contact with an infected partner. While sexual contact can be a route of transmission for some viruses, hepatitis A is primarily spread through the fecal-oral route. Transmission through sexual contact is less common but can occur, especially in practices that involve oral-anal contact.

Use of illegal drugs. Although sharing needles can transmit bloodborne pathogens such as hepatitis B and C, hepatitis A is not usually spread through this route. However, poor hygiene practices associated with drug use can increase the risk of fecal-oral transmission.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answer:

The patient should limit the consumption of fatty foods. Cholecystitis is the inflammation of the gallbladder, often caused by gallstones blocking the bile ducts. Consuming fatty foods can exacerbate symptoms because fats stimulate the gallbladder to release bile, which can increase pain and inflammation when the bile ducts are blocked. By limiting the intake of fatty foods, patients can reduce the workload on the gallbladder and minimize symptoms such as pain, bloating, and nausea.

Think of the gallbladder as a small pump that releases bile to help digest fats. If the pump is already clogged or inflamed, asking it to work harder by eating fatty foods is like overloading a clogged drain, causing more problems and potential overflow.

Proper dietary management is crucial for patients with cholecystitis. A diet low in fat reduces the need for bile production and release, thereby lessening the stress on the inflamed gallbladder. This dietary adjustment is a key component of managing cholecystitis and preventing complications such as gallbladder rupture or infection.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

The patient should limit the intake of sweets and sugary drinks. While reducing sugar intake is generally good for overall health, it is not specifically crucial for managing cholecystitis. The focus should be on limiting fats to reduce gallbladder stimulation.

The patient must adhere to a low-calorie diet. Although a balanced diet is important, focusing solely on calorie reduction does not address the specific dietary needs for cholecystitis management. The key is reducing fat intake rather than just calories.

The patient must follow a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet. A high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet is not specifically indicated for cholecystitis. The primary concern is reducing fat intake to avoid stimulating the gallbladder.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answer:

The testes typically descend by one year of age. Undescended testis, or cryptorchidism, is a condition where one or both testes fail to move down into the scrotal sac before birth. While most testes descend before birth, it is not uncommon for the descent to occur within the first few months of life. By one year of age, the majority of cases resolve spontaneously without the need for surgical intervention. If the testis has not descended by one year, then surgical treatment (orchiopexy) may be considered to prevent complications such as infertility or increased risk of testicular cancer.

Think of the testes as a package that’s supposed to be delivered to the scrotum by birth. Sometimes, the delivery is delayed, but it often arrives within the first year.

Monitoring the position of the testes during well-baby checkups is crucial for early detection of cryptorchidism. If a testis remains undescended beyond one year, timely referral to a pediatric urologist is important. Surgical correction is typically performed between 6 months and 2 years of age to reduce the risk of complications. Nurses should educate parents about the importance of follow-up examinations to ensure proper management of this condition.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

The infant will likely need surgery. While surgery is a potential treatment for undescended testis, it is not the immediate course of action for a 2-month-old infant. Observation is typically recommended until one year of age to see if the testis descends naturally.

The testes usually descend before birth. While it is true that testes usually descend before birth, this statement does not address the typical course of action for an undescended testis, which often involves monitoring until one year of age.

The infant probably has only one testis. The presence of one palpable testis does not necessarily indicate that the other is absent. The undescended testis may still be within the inguinal canal or abdomen and not easily felt during examination.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answer:

A sensation of air hunger. Pulmonary edema is a condition characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the alveoli and interstitial spaces of the lungs, making it difficult for the patient to breathe and exchange gases effectively. This leads to a sensation of air hunger or severe shortness of breath, where the patient feels an intense need to breathe. The feeling of air hunger occurs because the body is not receiving enough oxygen, and the patient may be unable to exhale carbon dioxide efficiently. This can result in increased respiratory rate, anxiety, and distress.

Imagine trying to breathe through a straw while running. No matter how hard you try, you can't get enough air to satisfy your body's needs, leading to a desperate, panicky feeling of needing more air.

Pulmonary edema, often a result of left-sided heart failure or myocardial infarction, leads to impaired gas exchange and decreased oxygenation of the blood. This condition requires immediate intervention, including oxygen therapy, diuretics to reduce fluid overload, and medications to support heart function and reduce the workload on the heart. Recognizing symptoms such as air hunger, crackles on auscultation, frothy sputum, and cyanosis is crucial for timely management and improving patient outcomes.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

Presence of stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound caused by disrupted airflow, usually indicating an upper airway obstruction. It is not a typical symptom of pulmonary edema, which affects the lower respiratory tract and alveoli.

Development of bradycardia. Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, is not a common symptom of pulmonary edema. In fact, patients with severe pulmonary edema may exhibit tachycardia (rapid heart rate) as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output and tissue perfusion.

Exhibiting slow, deep respirations. Slow, deep respirations are not characteristic of pulmonary edema. Patients with pulmonary edema typically exhibit rapid, shallow breathing due to the decreased ability of the lungs to expand fully and the need to expel excess carbon dioxide.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answer:

Hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms of confusion and shakiness. This condition occurs when blood glucose levels fall below normal, which can be a common occurrence in postoperative patients with diabetes mellitus, especially if they have not been able to eat. The symptoms of hypoglycemia include confusion, shakiness, sweating, and in severe cases, loss of consciousness. Since the patient is unable to eat solid foods and has a history of diabetes, it is crucial to check their blood glucose levels immediately and administer glucose if needed.

Think of the body's blood glucose level as fuel for a car. If the fuel (glucose) gets too low, the car (body) starts to malfunction, causing it to sputter and shake (symptoms like confusion and shakiness).

Hypoglycemia is a critical condition that requires prompt intervention. In the postoperative setting, patients with diabetes mellitus are at increased risk due to changes in diet, stress from surgery, and possible alterations in medication regimens. Ensuring regular monitoring of blood glucose levels and recognizing early signs of hypoglycemia are essential aspects of postoperative care for diabetic patients. Immediate treatment with fast-acting carbohydrates or IV glucose is necessary to prevent progression to more severe symptoms.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

Diabetic ketoacidosis. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is characterized by hyperglycemia, dehydration, and acidosis. Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and deep, rapid breathing (Kussmaul respirations). The patient's confusion and shakiness are more indicative of hypoglycemia rather than DKA, which typically presents more gradually and with different symptoms.

Hyperglycemia. Hyperglycemia refers to high blood glucose levels, which can cause symptoms such as increased thirst, frequent urination, and fatigue. However, it is less likely to cause acute confusion and shakiness without progressing to more severe conditions like DKA or hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). The acute nature of the patient's symptoms aligns more closely with hypoglycemia.

Anesthesia reaction. While postoperative confusion can sometimes result from anesthesia, the shakiness is not a typical symptom of anesthesia reactions. Furthermore, the patient's inability to eat and history of diabetes make hypoglycemia a more likely cause of the observed symptoms.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answer:

Small blue-white spots are visible inside the mouth. Small blue-white spots inside the mouth, known as Koplik spots, are a characteristic sign of rubeola (measles). These spots typically appear on the buccal mucosa (the inner lining of the cheeks) and are considered a pathognomonic sign of measles, meaning they are specific to this disease. Koplik spots usually appear a few days before the rash and help in early diagnosis.

Think of Koplik spots as unique footprints in the sand that only one specific animal (measles) can make. When you see these specific footprints, you can be almost certain of what animal (disease) is present.

Measles is a highly contagious viral disease that presents with a distinct prodromal phase of fever, cough, coryza (runny nose), and conjunctivitis (the "3 Cs"), followed by the appearance of Koplik spots. The characteristic maculopapular rash starts at the hairline and spreads downward to cover the face, neck, trunk, and extremities. Early recognition and isolation of measles cases are crucial to prevent outbreaks, especially in nonimmunized populations.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

The child has a low-grade fever. While fever is a common symptom of measles, it is not specific enough to distinguish it from other viral infections. Measles typically presents with a high fever.

The rash starts on the trunk and spreads outward. The rash in measles typically begins at the hairline and spreads downward to cover the face, neck, trunk, and extremities, not the other way around.

The rash lesions resemble “tear drops on a rose petal.” This description is characteristic of varicella (chickenpox) lesions, not measles. Chickenpox lesions start as red spots that develop into clear vesicles and then become pustules before crusting over.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answers:

Low PCO2. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the body attempts to compensate for metabolic acidosis by hyperventilating, a mechanism known as Kussmaul respiration. This leads to a decrease in PCO2 as the body tries to blow off excess carbon dioxide to reduce acidity.

Acetone breath. Acetone breath, or fruity-smelling breath, is a characteristic sign of DKA. It occurs due to the accumulation of ketones in the body, which are by-products of fat metabolism when the body is unable to utilize glucose effectively.

Think of DKA like a malfunctioning engine that switches to burning oil instead of gasoline, producing a distinct smell (acetone breath) and excess smoke (hyperventilation reducing PCO2).

DKA is a serious complication of diabetes characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis. The body’s compensatory mechanisms, such as hyperventilation to reduce PCO2 and the production of ketones leading to acetone breath, are key indicators. Recognizing these symptoms promptly is crucial for initiating appropriate interventions, including fluid replacement, insulin therapy, and electrolyte management.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

Elevated serum bicarbonate. In DKA, serum bicarbonate levels are typically low, not elevated. This is due to the consumption of bicarbonate in buffering the excess hydrogen ions produced during ketosis, leading to metabolic acidosis.

Excessive sweating. Excessive sweating is not a typical symptom of DKA. The condition usually involves dehydration due to polyuria (excessive urination) and not hyperhidrosis (excessive sweating).

Retinopathy. While diabetic retinopathy is a common long-term complication of diabetes, it is not an acute manifestation of DKA. Retinopathy develops over time due to chronic hyperglycemia and vascular damage in the retina, rather than being directly associated with the acute presentation of DKA.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answer:

Assessing the overall mental and physical abilities of the child. The most crucial element for effective toilet training is assessing the overall mental and physical abilities of the child. This assessment ensures that the child is developmentally ready for toilet training. It includes evaluating whether the child can understand and follow instructions, has the physical ability to sit on and rise from a potty chair, and can communicate the need to use the toilet. Children must also have sufficient bladder and bowel control, which typically develops between 18 and 24 months of age, though this can vary.

Think of toilet training like teaching a child to ride a bike. The child needs to have the physical strength to pedal, the mental ability to understand instructions, and the readiness to balance before they can successfully ride the bike. Similarly, a child needs to be physically and mentally ready for toilet training.

Readiness for toilet training varies widely among children, and pushing a child who is not ready can lead to frustration for both the child and the parents. Indicators of readiness include staying dry for longer periods, showing interest in adult toilet habits, the ability to follow simple instructions, and the ability to communicate the need to go to the bathroom. Nurses should educate parents on recognizing these signs and encourage a supportive and patient approach to toilet training.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

Considering the age of the child. While age can provide a general guideline for when toilet training might begin, it is not the most critical factor. Readiness varies widely among children, and focusing solely on age can lead to unnecessary pressure and stress.

Evaluating the child's ability to understand instructions. Understanding instructions is important, but it is just one aspect of overall readiness. The child's physical and emotional development also play significant roles in successful toilet training.

Implementing frequent attempts with positive reinforcement. Positive reinforcement is essential for encouraging desired behaviors, but frequent attempts without considering the child's readiness can lead to frustration and setbacks in the toilet training process.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answer:

Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn). Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). NSAIDs are known to cause gastrointestinal irritation, which can exacerbate conditions like acute gastritis. These medications inhibit the production of prostaglandins, which play a crucial role in protecting the stomach lining. Without sufficient prostaglandins, the gastric mucosa becomes more susceptible to damage from stomach acid, leading to increased inflammation, ulcers, and bleeding.

Think of the stomach lining as a protective shield. NSAIDs like Naproxen weaken this shield, making the stomach more vulnerable to attacks by stomach acid, much like removing the protective coating from a shield and exposing it to damage.

Managing acute gastritis involves avoiding substances that can irritate the gastric mucosa. NSAIDs are among the most common medications that can cause or worsen gastritis. Nurses need to be vigilant in reviewing patients' medications to prevent further gastrointestinal complications. Alternatives to NSAIDs for pain management should be considered, such as acetaminophen, which does not have the same gastrointestinal side effects.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

Clarithromycin (Biaxin). Clarithromycin is an antibiotic often used in combination therapy to eradicate Helicobacter pylori, a common cause of gastritis. It does not exacerbate gastritis and is actually part of the treatment regimen for some types of gastritis.

Calcium carbonate. Calcium carbonate is an antacid used to neutralize stomach acid and relieve symptoms of gastritis. It helps protect the stomach lining and can be beneficial in managing gastritis symptoms.

Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a diuretic used to manage conditions like hypertension and edema. It does not have a direct irritating effect on the gastric mucosa and is not contraindicated in patients with gastritis.

EXPLANATION

✔ Correct answer:

Vomiting repeatedly. Repeated vomiting is a significant sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a child who has sustained head trauma. Vomiting can occur due to pressure on the vomiting centers in the brainstem. This is a critical sign that the child's condition may be worsening and requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications such as brain herniation.

Think of the brain as a tightly packed suitcase. If you keep adding things (like swelling or blood), the suitcase can't close properly and things start getting pushed out. Vomiting is one of the ways the body signals that the suitcase is too full and under pressure.

Increased intracranial pressure in children can present with a variety of symptoms, including headache, vomiting, altered consciousness, and changes in behavior or neurological status. Monitoring for these signs is crucial in the early detection and management of ICP. Immediate interventions may include imaging studies to assess the extent of the injury and potential surgical intervention to relieve the pressure.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

Feeling sleepy at 10 PM. Feeling sleepy at night, especially at a typical bedtime for a 5-year-old, is not unusual and does not specifically indicate increased intracranial pressure. It is important to differentiate normal sleepiness from lethargy or an unusual level of drowsiness.

Difficulty reading short words from a distance of 18 inches. Difficulty with reading could indicate vision problems, but it is not a primary symptom of increased intracranial pressure. Visual disturbances related to ICP would more likely present as double vision, blurred vision, or other more acute changes.

A bulging soft spot on the head. A bulging fontanelle (soft spot) is a sign of increased intracranial pressure in infants, not in a 5-year-old child. By the age of 5, the fontanelles have typically closed, so this symptom would not be relevant.

EXPLANATION

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C) Adopting a restricted sodium diet. Patients with Addison’s disease have adrenal insufficiency, leading to decreased production of cortisol and aldosterone. Aldosterone helps regulate sodium and potassium balance in the body. In Addison’s disease, the lack of aldosterone results in sodium loss and potassium retention. Therefore, restricting sodium intake is not recommended for these patients. Instead, they should ensure adequate sodium intake to prevent hyponatremia and maintain electrolyte balance, especially during periods of stress or illness.

Think of the adrenal glands like salt shakers. In Addison’s disease, the salt shakers are broken and don't add enough salt to the body. Advising a restricted sodium diet would be like telling someone with broken salt shakers to use even less salt, which would lead to a bigger deficiency.

Managing nutrition in patients with Addison’s disease involves ensuring they receive adequate sodium, calories, and protein to compensate for the deficiencies caused by adrenal insufficiency. Sodium intake is particularly crucial as it helps prevent complications like dehydration, hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances. Educating patients about recognizing signs of low sodium levels and adjusting their diet accordingly is essential for effective management of Addison’s disease.

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Ensuring adequate caloric intake. Adequate caloric intake is important for patients with Addison’s disease to maintain energy levels and overall health, especially during times of increased physical or emotional stress.

Following a high-protein diet. A high-protein diet can be beneficial for patients with Addison’s disease as it helps support muscle mass and overall health.

Consuming a diet high in grains. A diet high in grains can be part of a balanced diet for patients with Addison’s disease, providing essential nutrients and energy.

EXPLANATION

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Elevated serum calcium. Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by the overproduction of parathyroid hormone (PTH) by the parathyroid glands. This condition leads to an increase in the release of calcium from bones, increased calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, and increased intestinal absorption of calcium due to elevated PTH levels. Consequently, patients with primary hyperparathyroidism typically present with elevated serum calcium levels (hypercalcemia).

Think of the parathyroid glands as managers of a calcium bank. In primary hyperparathyroidism, the managers keep releasing more calcium into the bloodstream, causing elevated calcium levels, much like continuously withdrawing money from a bank account.

Recognizing the lab findings associated with primary hyperparathyroidism is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective management. Elevated serum calcium is a hallmark of this condition and can lead to symptoms such as kidney stones, bone pain, and gastrointestinal disturbances. Nurses should also monitor for potential complications of hypercalcemia, including cardiac arrhythmias and neuropsychiatric symptoms. Appropriate management strategies include hydration, medications to lower calcium levels, and potentially surgical removal of the overactive parathyroid gland(s).

✘Incorrect answer options:

Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH). This statement is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by elevated, not low, levels of PTH.

Low urine calcium. In primary hyperparathyroidism, increased serum calcium levels often result in hypercalciuria, or elevated calcium in the urine, due to increased renal filtration and excretion of calcium.

Elevated serum vitamin D. While vitamin D plays a role in calcium absorption, primary hyperparathyroidism is specifically marked by elevated PTH and calcium levels. Elevated vitamin D is not a characteristic finding of this condition.

EXPLANATION

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Platelet count. Platelets are essential for blood clotting. A low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) can increase the risk of bleeding, which is particularly important to assess before a procedure like a liver biopsy where bleeding is a potential complication.

Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and helps evaluate the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. It is critical to assess PTT to ensure the patient does not have an increased risk of bleeding during the biopsy.

Prothrombin time (PT). PT assesses the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is another crucial test to determine the patient's clotting ability. It helps identify any coagulation disorders that could increase bleeding risk during the procedure.

Think of coagulation tests as a safety check before roadwork. Platelet count, PTT, and PT are like checking tire pressure, brakes, and oil levels to ensure everything is in proper working order to prevent accidents.

Before invasive procedures such as a liver biopsy, it is critical to evaluate the patient's coagulation status to minimize the risk of hemorrhage. Platelet count, PTT, and PT are standard tests to assess different aspects of the coagulation cascade. Platelets are vital for clot formation, PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway, and PT assesses the extrinsic pathway. Ensuring these parameters are within normal ranges helps prevent excessive bleeding and potential complications during and after the procedure.

✘ Incorrect answer option:

Hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is a measure of the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and is not a direct indicator of coagulation status. While important for overall assessment, hemoglobin does not provide information about the blood's ability to clot and prevent bleeding.

EXPLANATION

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Keeping accurate intake and output records. Keeping accurate records of the client's intake and output can be delegated to an unlicensed assistant (UAP). This task is within their scope of practice and is essential for monitoring fluid balance in a client with ulcerative colitis.

Measuring and recording the client’s weight. Measuring and recording the client's weight is another task that can be delegated to a UAP. This activity involves following a standard procedure and does not require clinical judgment, making it appropriate for delegation.

Performing skin care after bowel movements. Performing skin care after bowel movements is a fundamental task that can be delegated to a UAP. Proper skin care is crucial for preventing skin breakdown and infection in clients with frequent diarrhea, a common symptom of ulcerative colitis.

Think of delegating tasks like assembling a team for a project. The UAP can handle routine tasks (keeping records, measuring weight, skin care), while the nurse focuses on complex tasks requiring expertise and judgment.

Delegating appropriate tasks to UAPs allows nurses to focus on more complex and clinical activities that require professional judgment and advanced skills. For clients with ulcerative colitis, monitoring intake and output, weight, and performing skin care are essential for managing symptoms and preventing complications. These tasks can be reliably performed by UAPs, ensuring comprehensive care and efficient use of nursing resources.

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Assessing the client’s response to antidiarrheal medications. Assessing the client's response to medications requires clinical judgment and knowledge of pharmacology, making it an inappropriate task to delegate to a UAP.

Evaluating the client’s bowel sounds. Evaluating bowel sounds is a clinical assessment that requires the expertise of a nurse or healthcare professional. It involves critical thinking and interpretation of findings, which are beyond the scope of practice for a UAP.

EXPLANATION

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Difficulty breathing when lying flat (orthopnea). Orthopnea can occur in patients with polycythemia vera due to increased blood volume and viscosity, which can lead to heart failure and pulmonary congestion.

Frequent headaches. Headaches are a common symptom in polycythemia vera due to increased blood viscosity and reduced oxygen delivery to the brain, which can lead to cerebral hypoxia.

Pain and inflammation in joints (gout). Polycythemia vera can lead to increased cell turnover, resulting in elevated uric acid levels, which can cause gouty arthritis.

Visual disturbances. Visual disturbances are common in polycythemia vera due to increased blood viscosity, which can lead to retinal vein thrombosis or hemorrhages, affecting vision.

Think of polycythemia vera like a traffic jam in your blood vessels. The increased "traffic" (blood cells) causes delays and problems (symptoms) like headaches, vision issues, and gout due to the congestion.

Polycythemia vera is a myeloproliferative disorder characterized by an increased number of red blood cells, which can lead to hyperviscosity and an increased risk of thrombosis. Symptoms and complications arise from increased blood volume and thickness, which can affect various organ systems. Educating patients about these potential complications is crucial for early detection and management to prevent severe outcomes.

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Unexplained weight loss. Unexplained weight loss is not a typical symptom of polycythemia vera. It is more commonly associated with malignancies or chronic infections rather than polycythemia vera.

Reduced ability to hear (hearing loss). Hearing loss is not a common manifestation of polycythemia vera. While the disease can cause various symptoms due to increased blood viscosity, hearing loss is not typically one of them.

EXPLANATION

✔ Incorrect answer:

Small red spots (petechiae) appear on the soft palate. Petechiae on the soft palate are not characteristic of scarlet fever. While petechiae can be associated with various conditions, they are not typically seen in scarlet fever. Scarlet fever, caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria, usually presents with a “strawberry tongue,” a red and swollen pharynx, and a characteristic fine red rash that feels like sandpaper.

Think of scarlet fever as having a very specific "recipe" of symptoms: it includes a "strawberry tongue" and a sandpaper-like rash but does not include petechiae on the soft palate.

Scarlet fever is most commonly seen in children aged 5 to 15 years and presents with a sore throat, fever, and a red rash. The tongue initially appears white with red spots, progressing to the classic “strawberry” appearance. Early diagnosis and treatment with antibiotics are crucial to prevent complications such as rheumatic fever or post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.

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A “strawberry tongue” is a characteristic sign. A “strawberry tongue” is indeed a characteristic sign of scarlet fever, where the tongue initially appears white with red spots and later turns bright red and swollen.

Scarlet fever is caused by infection with group A Streptococcus bacteria. Scarlet fever is caused by the release of exotoxins from group A Streptococcus bacteria, typically following a streptococcal throat infection.

The pharynx is red and swollen. The pharynx in patients with scarlet fever is usually red and swollen, consistent with the inflammation caused by the streptococcal infection.

EXPLANATION

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The patient suddenly experiences chest pain and shortness of breath. Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a condition where one or more arteries in the lungs become blocked by a blood clot. The most common symptoms of PE are sudden onset of chest pain, which may be sharp and worsen with deep breathing, and shortness of breath. These symptoms occur because the blood clot obstructs blood flow to the lungs, reducing oxygen levels and causing the affected lung tissue to become ischemic.

Imagine a water hose that suddenly gets a large rock stuck inside. The water flow stops, causing pressure to build up behind the blockage. In the same way, a blood clot blocks an artery in the lungs, causing sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing.

Pulmonary embolism is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Along with chest pain and shortness of breath, other signs may include rapid heart rate (tachycardia), anxiety, cough (sometimes with blood-tinged sputum), and cyanosis. Recognizing these symptoms promptly and notifying the physician can be life-saving. Diagnostic tests such as D-dimer, CT pulmonary angiography, and V/Q scan are used to confirm PE, and treatment typically includes anticoagulant therapy.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

The patient presents with a fever, chills, and reduced appetite. These symptoms are more indicative of an infectious process, such as pneumonia or sepsis, rather than a pulmonary embolism. Fever and chills are not typically associated with PE.

The patient develops a wet cough, and auscultation reveals crackles in the lungs. A wet cough and crackles on auscultation suggest fluid in the lungs, which is more characteristic of conditions like pneumonia or congestive heart failure, not pulmonary embolism.

The patient becomes somnolent and shows decreased responsiveness to family. While altered mental status can occur in severe cases of PE due to hypoxia, it is not the most common presentation. These symptoms could be related to a variety of other conditions, such as stroke, drug overdose, or severe metabolic imbalances.

EXPLANATION

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Slightly slurred speech. Slurred speech can occur due to the effect of low blood glucose on brain function. The brain relies on glucose for energy, and when levels drop, cognitive and motor functions can be impaired, leading to symptoms such as slurred speech.

Noticeable palpitations. Palpitations are a common symptom of hypoglycemia due to the release of adrenaline in response to low blood glucose levels. This can cause an increased heart rate and palpitations as the body attempts to raise blood glucose levels.

Excessive diaphoresis. Excessive sweating (diaphoresis) is a classic symptom of hypoglycemia. The release of adrenaline also stimulates sweat glands, causing the individual to sweat profusely.

Think of hypoglycemia like a low fuel warning light in a car. The brain (driver) starts to make mistakes (slurred speech), the heart (engine) revs up (palpitations), and the body (car) starts to overheat (excessive sweating).

Hypoglycemia occurs when blood glucose levels drop below normal, leading to various physiological responses. Symptoms such as slurred speech, palpitations, and excessive diaphoresis are immediate signs that the body is struggling to maintain adequate glucose levels for essential functions. Recognizing these symptoms promptly is critical for preventing severe hypoglycemia, which can lead to seizures, unconsciousness, or even death if not treated quickly with glucose administration.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

Increased hyperventilation. Hyperventilation is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia. It is more commonly associated with respiratory conditions or anxiety rather than low blood glucose levels.

Persistent thirst. Persistent thirst is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia (high blood glucose levels) rather than hypoglycemia. It is a symptom of the body's attempt to dilute high glucose concentrations in the blood by increasing fluid intake.

EXPLANATION

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Platelet count. Platelet count is crucial for assessing coagulation status because platelets are essential for blood clot formation. A low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) can significantly increase the risk of bleeding during a liver biopsy.

Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot via the intrinsic and common pathways of the coagulation cascade. It helps identify any deficiencies or inhibitors that could lead to increased bleeding risk during the procedure.

Prothrombin time (PT). PT assesses the extrinsic and common pathways of the coagulation cascade by measuring how long it takes blood to clot. It is a critical test for determining the risk of bleeding during invasive procedures like a liver biopsy.

Think of these coagulation tests as checks on a car's brakes before a steep downhill drive. Platelet count, PTT, and PT ensure the "braking system" (blood's ability to clot) is functioning correctly to prevent any "accidents" (excessive bleeding).

Assessing coagulation status before invasive procedures is essential to prevent complications from bleeding. Platelet count, PTT, and PT are fundamental tests in evaluating different aspects of the coagulation pathways. Platelets are involved in primary hemostasis, PTT assesses the intrinsic pathway, and PT evaluates the extrinsic pathway. Together, these tests provide a comprehensive overview of the patient’s coagulation status, ensuring safe surgical and diagnostic interventions.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

Complete Blood Count (CBC). While a CBC includes the platelet count, it is not specifically a coagulation test. It provides a broad overview of overall blood health, including red and white blood cell counts, but does not specifically assess coagulation pathways.

Hemoglobin. Hemoglobin measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood but does not directly relate to coagulation. It is important for general health assessment but not specific to assessing bleeding risk.

White Blood Cell Count (WBC). WBC count is used to assess immune function and the presence of infection or inflammation, not coagulation. It is not relevant to determining bleeding risk before a liver biopsy.

EXPLANATION

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Ineffective tissue perfusion related to decreased peripheral blood flow secondary to decreased cardiac output. Ineffective tissue perfusion is a common issue in clients with heart failure due to decreased cardiac output. The heart's inability to pump effectively leads to reduced blood flow to peripheral tissues, resulting in inadequate oxygenation and nutrient delivery.

Decreased cardiac output related to structural and functional changes. Decreased cardiac output is directly associated with the structural and functional changes in the heart seen in heart failure, such as ventricular hypertrophy, valvular dysfunction, or myocardial infarction. These changes impair the heart’s ability to pump blood effectively.

Think of the heart as a weakened pump (decreased cardiac output) leading to less water flowing through the pipes (ineffective tissue perfusion). Just like weak water pressure affects the entire house, a weak heart affects the whole body.

In heart failure, the primary issues revolve around the heart's inability to pump effectively (decreased cardiac output) and the resultant poor blood flow to tissues (ineffective tissue perfusion). Recognizing these nursing diagnoses helps guide interventions to improve cardiac function, enhance tissue perfusion, and manage symptoms.

✘ Incorrect answer options:

Impaired gas exchange related to decreased sympathetic nervous system activity. Impaired gas exchange in heart failure is typically due to pulmonary congestion and fluid overload, not decreased sympathetic nervous system activity. This choice does not accurately reflect the pathophysiology of heart failure.

Activity intolerance related to increased cardiac output. Activity intolerance in heart failure is due to decreased cardiac output, not increased. The heart's inability to meet the body's demands during physical activity leads to fatigue and shortness of breath.