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NCLEX Practice Exam for Genitourinary System
NCLEX Exam

NCLEX Practice Exam for Genitourinary System

1. The nurse is aware that the following findings would be further evidence of a urethral injury in a male client during rectal examination?

  1. A low-riding prostate
  2. The presence of a boggy mass
  3. Absent sphincter tone
  4. A positive Hemoccult

2. When a female client with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter insists on walking to the hospital lobby to visit with family members, nurse Rose teaches how to do this without compromising the catheter. Which client action indicates an accurate understanding of this information?

  1. The client sets the drainage bag on the floor while sitting down.
  2. The client keeps the drainage bag below the bladder at all times.
  3. The client clamps the catheter drainage tubing while visiting with the family.
  4. The client loops the drainage tubing below its point of entry into the drainage bag.

3. A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is appropriate to tell this client?

  1. This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.
  2. The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days.
  3. The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse.
  4. The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can’t be transmitted during oral sex.

4. A male client with bladder cancer has had the bladder removed and an ileal conduit created for urine diversion. While changing this client’s pouch, the nurse observes that the area around the stoma is red, weeping, and painful. What should nurse Katrina conclude?

  1. The skin wasn’t lubricated before the pouch was applied.
  2. The pouch faceplate doesn’t fit the stoma.
  3. A skin barrier was applied properly.
  4. Stoma dilation wasn’t performed.

5. The nurse is aware that the following laboratory values supports a diagnosis of pyelonephritis?

  1. Myoglobinuria
  2. Ketonuria
  3. Pyuria
  4. Low white blood cell (WBC) count

6. A female client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is receiving a hemodialysis treatment. After hemodialysis, nurse Sarah knows that the client is most likely to experience:

  1. hematuria.
  2. weight loss.
  3. increased urine output.
  4. increased blood pressure.

7. Nurse Lea is assessing a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptom most likely prompted the client to seek medical attention?

  1. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
  2. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis
  3. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis
  4. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis

8. Nurse Agnes is reviewing the report of a client’s routine urinalysis. Which value should the nurse consider abnormal?

  1. Specific gravity of 1.03
  2. Urine pH of 3.0
  3. Absence of protein
  4. Absence of glucose

9. A male client is scheduled for a renal clearance test. Nurse Maureen should explain that this test is done to assess the kidneys’ ability to remove a substance from the plasma in:

  1. 1 minute.
  2. 30 minutes.
  3. 1 hour.
  4. 24 hours.

10. A male client in the short-procedure unit is recovering from renal angiography in which a femoral puncture site was used. When providing postprocedure care, the nurse should:

  1. keep the client’s knee on the affected side bent for 6 hours.
  2. apply pressure to the puncture site for 30 minutes.
  3. check the client’s pedal pulses frequently.
  4. remove the dressing on the puncture site after vital signs stabilize.

11. A female client is admitted for treatment of chronic renal failure (CRF). Nurse Juliet knows that this disorder increases the client’s risk of:

  1. water and sodium retention secondary to a severe decrease in the glomerular filtration rate.
  2. a decreased serum phosphate level secondary to kidney failure.
  3. an increased serum calcium level secondary to kidney failure.
  4. metabolic alkalosis secondary to retention of hydrogen ions.

12. Because of difficulties with hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis is initiated to treat a female client’s uremia. Which finding signals a significant problem during this procedure?

  1. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
  2. Hematocrit (HCT) of 35%
  3. Blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl
  4. White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3

13. For a male client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), which nursing intervention is most important?

  1. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing
  2. Promoting carbohydrate intake
  3. Limiting fluid intake
  4. Providing pain-relief measures

14. A female client requires hemodialysis. Which of the following drugs should be withheld before this procedure?

  1. Phosphate binders
  2. Insulin
  3. Antibiotics
  4. Cardiac glycosides

15. A client comes to the outpatient department complaining of vaginal discharge, dysuria, and genital irritation. Suspecting a sexually transmitted disease (STD), Dr. Smith orders diagnostic tests of the vaginal discharge. Which STD must be reported to the public health department?

  1. Chlamydia
  2. Gonorrhea
  3. Genital herpes
  4. Human papillomavirus infection

16. A male client with acute pyelonephritis receives a prescription for co-trimoxazole (Septra) P.O. twice daily for 10 days. Which finding best demonstrates that the client has followed the prescribed regimen?

  1. Urine output increases to 2,000 ml/day.
  2. Flank and abdominal discomfort decrease.
  3. Bacteria are absent on urine culture.
  4. The red blood cell (RBC) count is normal.

17. A 26-year-old female client seeks care for a possible infection. Her symptoms include burning on urination and frequent, urgent voiding of small amounts of urine. She’s placed on trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) to treat possible infection. Another medication is prescribed to decrease the pain and frequency. Which of the following is the most likely medication prescribed?

  1. nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin)
  2. ibuprofen (Motrin)
  3. acetaminophen with codeine
  4. phenazopyridine (Pyridium)

18. A triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter is inserted for continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate. In addition to balloon inflation, the nurse is aware that the functions of the three lumens include:

  1. Continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution.
  2. Intermittent inflow and continuous outflow of irrigation solution.
  3. Continuous inflow and intermittent outflow of irrigation solution.
  4. Intermittent flow of irrigation solution and prevention of hemorrhage.

19. Nurse Claudine is reviewing a client’s fluid intake and output record. Fluid intake and urine output should relate in which way?

  1. Fluid intake should be double the urine output.
  2. Fluid intake should be approximately equal to the urine output.
  3. Fluid intake should be half the urine output.
  4. Fluid intake should be inversely proportional to the urine output.

20. After trying to conceive for a year, a couple consults an infertility specialist. When obtaining a history from the husband, nurse Jenny inquires about childhood infectious diseases. Which childhood infectious disease most significantly affects male fertility?

  1. Chickenpox
  2. Measles
  3. Mumps
  4. Scarlet fever

21. A male client comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset of sharp, severe pain in the lumbar region, which radiates around the side and toward the bladder. The client also reports nausea and vomiting and appears pale, diaphoretic, and anxious. The physician tentatively diagnoses renal calculi and orders flat-plate abdominal X-rays. Renal calculi can form anywhere in the urinary tract. What is their most common formation site?

  1. Kidney
  2. Ureter
  3. Bladder
  4. Urethra

22. A female client with acute renal failure is undergoing dialysis for the first time. The nurse in charge monitors the client closely for dialysis equilibrium syndrome, a complication that is most common during the first few dialysis sessions. Typically, dialysis equilibrium syndrome causes:

  1. confusion, headache, and seizures.
  2. acute bone pain and confusion.
  3. weakness, tingling, and cardiac arrhythmias.
  4. hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea.

23. Dr. Marquez prescribes norfloxacin (Noroxin), 400 mg P.O. twice daily, for a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI). The client asks the nurse how long to continue taking the drug. For an uncomplicated UTI, the usual duration of norfloxacin therapy is:

  1. 3 to 5 days.
  2. 7 to 10 days.
  3. 12 to 14 days.
  4. 10 to 21 days.

24. Nurse Joy is providing postprocedure care for a client who underwent percutaneous lithotripsy. In this procedure, an ultrasonic probe inserted through a nephrostomy tube into the renal pelvis generates ultra–high-frequency sound waves to shatter renal calculi. The nurse should instruct the client to:

  1. limit oral fluid intake for 1 to 2 weeks.
  2. report the presence of fine, sandlike particles through the nephrostomy tube.
  3. notify the physician about cloudy or foul-smelling urine.
  4. report bright pink urine within 24 hours after the procedure.

25. A client is frustrated and embarrassed by urinary incontinence. Which of the following measures should nurse Bea include in a bladder retraining program?

  1. Establishing a predetermined fluid intake pattern for the client
  2. Encouraging the client to increase the time between voidings
  3. Restricting fluid intake to reduce the need to void
  4. Assessing present elimination patterns

26. After having transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), a Mr. Lim returns to the unit with a three-way indwelling urinary catheter and continuous closed bladder irrigation. Which finding suggests that the client’s catheter is occluded?

  1. The urine in the drainage bag appears red to pink.
  2. The client reports bladder spasms and the urge to void.
  3. The normal saline irrigant is infusing at a rate of 50 drops/minute.
  4. About 1,000 ml of irrigant have been instilled; 1,200 ml of drainage have been returned.

27. Nurse Mary is inserting a urinary catheter into a client who is extremely anxious about the procedure. The nurse can facilitate the insertion by asking the client to:

  1. initiate a stream of urine.
  2. breathe deeply.
  3. turn to the side.
  4. hold the labia or shaft of penis.

28. A female adult client admitted with a gunshot wound to the abdomen is transferred to the intensive care unit after an exploratory laparotomy. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing acute renal failure (ARF)?

  1. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 22 mg/dl
  2. Serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl
  3. Serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl
  4. Urine output of 400 ml/24 hours

29. A 55-year old client with benign prostatic hyperplasia doesn’t respond to medical treatment and is admitted to the facility for prostate gland removal. Before providing preoperative and postoperative instructions to the client, Nurse Gerry asks the surgeon which prostatectomy procedure will be done. What is the most widely used procedure for prostate gland removal?

  1. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
  2. Suprapubic prostatectomy
  3. Retropubic prostatectomy
  4. Transurethral laser incision of the prostate

30. A female client with suspected renal dysfunction is scheduled for excretory urography. Nurse January reviews the history for conditions that may warrant changes in client preparation. Normally, a client should be mildly hypovolemic (fluid depleted) before excretory urography. Which history finding would call for the client to be well hydrated instead?

  1. Cystic fibrosis
  2. Multiple myeloma
  3. Gout
  4. Myasthenia gravis

31. Nurse Karen is caring for a client who had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which nursing intervention promotes urinary continence?

  1. Encouraging intake of at least 2 L of fluid daily
  2. Giving the client a glass of soda before bedtime
  3. Taking the client to the bathroom twice per day
  4. Consulting with a dietitian

32. When examining a female client’s genitourinary system, Nurse Sandy assesses for tenderness at the costovertebral angle by placing the left hand over this area and striking it with the right fist. Normally, this percussion technique produces which sound?

  1. A flat sound
  2. A dull sound
  3. Hyperresonance
  4. Tympany

33. A male client with chronic renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. What should nurse Olivia assess first?

  1. Blood pressure
  2. Respirations
  3. Temperature
  4. Pulse

34. Nurse Harry is aware that the following is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with renal calculi?

  1. Ineffective tissue perfusion
  2. Functional urinary incontinence
  3. Risk for infection
  4. Decreased cardiac output

35. A male client develops acute renal failure (ARF) after receiving I.V. therapy with a nephrotoxic antibiotic. Because the client’s 24-hour urine output totals 240 ml, Nurse Billy suspects that the client is at risk for:

  1. cardiac arrhythmia.
  2. paresthesia.
  3. dehydration.
  4. pruritus.

36. After undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, a male client returns to the room with continuous bladder irrigation. On the first day after surgery, the client reports bladder pain. What should Nurse Anthony do first?

  1. Increase the I.V. flow rate.
  2. Notify the physician immediately.
  3. Assess the irrigation catheter for patency and drainage.
  4. Administer meperidine (Demerol), 50 mg I.M., as prescribed.

37. When performing a scrotal examination, Nurse Payne finds a nodule. What should the nurse do next?

  1. Notify the physician.
  2. Change the client’s position and repeat the examination.
  3. Perform a rectal examination.
  4. Transilluminate the scrotum.

38. A male client who has been treated for chronic renal failure (CRF) is ready for discharge. Nurse Billy should reinforce which dietary instruction?

  1. “Be sure to eat meat at every meal.”
  2. “Monitor your fruit intake, and eat plenty of bananas.”
  3.  “Increase your carbohydrate intake.”
  4. “Drink plenty of fluids, and use a salt substitute.”

39. Nurse Gil is aware that the following statements describing urinary incontinence in the elderly is true?

  1. Urinary incontinence is a normal part of aging.
  2. Urinary incontinence isn’t a disease.
  3. Urinary incontinence in the elderly can’t be treated.
  4. Urinary incontinence is a disease.

40. The client underwent a transurethral resection of the prostate gland 24 hours ago and is on continuous bladder irrigation. Nurse Yonny is aware that the following nursing interventions is appropriate?

  1. Tell the client to try to urinate around the catheter to remove blood clots.
  2. Restrict fluids to prevent the client’s bladder from becoming distended.
  3. Prepare to remove the catheter.
  4. Use aseptic technique when irrigating the catheter.

41. A female client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed co-trimoxazole (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole). Nurse Dolly should provide which medication instruction?

  1. “Take the medication with food.”
  2. “Drink at least eight 8-oz glasses of fluid daily.”
  3. “Avoid taking antacids during co-trimoxazole therapy.”
  4. “Don’t be afraid to go out in the sun.”

42. A male client is admitted for treatment of glomerulonephritis. On initial assessment, Nurse Miley detects one of the classic signs of acute glomerulonephritis of sudden onset. Such signs include:

  1. generalized edema, especially of the face and periorbital area.
  2. green-tinged urine.
  3. moderate to severe hypotension.
  4. polyuria.

43. A client reports experiencing vulvar pruritus. Which assessment factor may indicate that the client has an infection caused by Candida albicans?

  1. Cottage cheese–like discharge
  2. Yellow-green discharge
  3. Gray-white discharge
  4. Discharge with a fishy odor

44. A 24-year old female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is appropriate to tell this client?

  1. This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.
  2. The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days.
  3. The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse.
  4. The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can’t be transmitted during oral sex.

45. Nurse Vic is monitoring the fluid intake and output of a female client recovering from an exploratory laparotomy. Which nursing intervention would help the client avoid a urinary tract infection (UTI)?

  1. Maintaining a closed indwelling urinary catheter system and securing the catheter to the leg
  2. Limiting fluid intake to 1 L/day
  3. Encouraging the client to use a feminine deodorant after bathing
  4. Encouraging the client to douche once a day after removal of the indwelling urinary catheter

46. Nurse Eve is caring for a client who had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which nursing intervention promotes urinary continence?

  1. Encouraging intake of at least 2 L of fluid daily
  2. Giving the client a glass of soda before bedtime
  3. Taking the client to the bathroom twice per day
  4. Consulting with a dietitian

47. A female client with an indwelling urinary catheter is suspected of having a urinary tract infection. Nurse Angel should collect a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity by:

  1. disconnecting the tubing from the urinary catheter and letting the urine flow into a sterile container.
  2. wiping the self-sealing aspiration port with antiseptic solution and aspirating urine with a sterile needle.
  3. draining urine from the drainage bag into a sterile container.
  4. clamping the tubing for 60 minutes and inserting a sterile needle into the tubing above the clamp to aspirate urine.

48. Nurse Grace is assessing a male client diagnosed with gonorrheA. Which symptom most likely prompted the client to seek medical attention?

  1. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
  2. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis
  3. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis
  4. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis

49. Nurse Erica is planning to administer a sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) enema to a client with a potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. Correct administration and the effects of this enema would include having the client:

  1. retain the enema for 30 minutes to allow for sodium exchange; afterward, the client should have diarrhea.
  2. retain the enema for 30 minutes to allow for glucose exchange; afterward, the client should have diarrhea.
  3. retain the enema for 60 minutes to allow for sodium exchange; diarrhea isn’t necessary to reduce the potassium level.
  4. retain the enema for 60 minutes to allow for glucose exchange; diarrhea isn’t necessary to reduce the potassium level.

50. When caring for a male client with acute renal failure (ARF), Nurse Fatrishia expects to adjust the dosage or dosing schedule of certain drugs. Which of the following drugs would not require such adjustment?

  1. acetaminophen (Tylenol)
  2. gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin)
  3. cyclosporine (Sandimmune)
  4. ticarcillin disodium (Ticar)
Answers and Rationales
  1. Answer B. When the urethra is ruptured, a hematoma or collection of blood separates the two sections of urethra. This may feel like a boggy mass on rectal examination. Because of the rupture and hematoma, the prostate becomes high riding. A palpable prostate gland usually indicates a nonurethral injury. Absent sphincter tone would refer to a spinal cord injury. The presence of blood would probably correlate with GI bleeding or a colon injury.
  2. Answer B. To maintain effective drainage, the client should keep the drainage bag below the bladder; this allows the urine to flow by gravity from the bladder to the drainage bag. The client shouldn’t lay the drainage bag on the floor because it could become grossly contaminated. The client shouldn’t clamp the catheter drainage tubing because this impedes the flow of urine. To promote drainage, the client may loop the drainage tubing above — not below — its point of entry into the drainage bag.
  3. Answer A. Women with condylomata acuminata are at risk for cancer of the cervix and vulva. Yearly Pap smears are very important for early detection. Because condylomata acuminata is a virus, there is no permanent cure. Because condylomata acuminata can occur on the vulva, a condom won’t protect sexual partners. HPV can be transmitted to other parts of the body, such as the mouth, oropharynx, and larynx.
  4. Answer B. If the pouch faceplate doesn’t fit the stoma properly, the skin around the stoma will be exposed to continuous urine flow from the stoma, causing excoriation and red, weeping, and painful skin. A lubricant shouldn’t be used because it would prevent the pouch from adhering to the skin. When properly applied, a skin barrier prevents skin excoriation. Stoma dilation isn’t performed with an ileal conduit, although it may be done with a colostomy if ordered.
  5. Answer C. Pyelonephritis is diagnosed by the presence of leukocytosis, hematuria, pyuria, and bacteriuria. The client exhibits fever, chills, and flank pain. Because there is often a septic picture, the WBC count is more likely to be high rather than low, as indicated in option D. Ketonuria indicates a diabetic state.
  6. Answer B. Because CRF causes loss of renal function, the client with this disorder retains fluid. Hemodialysis removes this fluid, causing weight loss. Hematuria is unlikely to follow hemodialysis because the client with CRF usually forms little or no urine. Hemodialysis doesn’t increase urine output because it doesn’t correct the loss of kidney function, which severely decreases urine production in this disorder. By removing fluids, hemodialysis decreases rather than increases the blood pressure.
  7. Answer D. Symptoms of gonorrhea in men include purulent, foul-smelling drainage from the penis and painful urination. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet are symptoms of the secondary stage of syphilis. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis are a sign of human papillomavirus. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis may be a sign of the first stage of genital herpes.
  8. Answer B. Normal urine pH is 4.5 to 8; therefore, a urine pH of 3.0 is abnormal. Urine specific gravity normally ranges from 1.002 to 1.035, making this client’s value normal. Normally, urine contains no protein, glucose, ketones, bilirubin, bacteria, casts, or crystals. Red blood cells should measure 0 to 3 per high-power field; white blood cells, 0 to 4 per high-power field. Urine should be clear, its color ranging from pale yellow to deep amber.
  9. Answer A. The renal clearance test determines the kidneys’ ability to remove a substance from the plasma in 1 minute. It doesn’t measure the kidneys’ ability to remove a substance over a longer period.
  10. Answer C. After renal angiography involving a femoral puncture site, the nurse should check the client’s pedal pulses frequently to detect reduced circulation to the feet caused by vascular injury. The nurse also should monitor vital signs for evidence of internal hemorrhage and should observe the puncture site frequently for fresh bleeding. The client should be kept on bed rest for several hours so the puncture site can seal completely. Keeping the client’s knee bent is unnecessary. By the time the client returns to the short-procedure unit, manual pressure over the puncture site is no longer needed because a pressure dressing is in place. The nurse shouldn’t remove this dressing for several hours — and only if instructed to do so.
  11. Answer A. A client with CRF is at risk for fluid imbalance — dehydration if the kidneys fail to concentrate urine, or fluid retention if the kidneys fail to produce urine. Electrolyte imbalances associated with this disorder result from the kidneys’ inability to excrete phosphorus; such imbalances may lead to hyperphosphatemia with reciprocal hypocalcemia. CRF may cause metabolic acidosis, not metabolic alkalosis, secondary to inability of the kidneys to excrete hydrogen ions.
  12. Answer D. An increased WBC count indicates infection, probably resulting from peritonitis, which may have been caused by insertion of the peritoneal catheter into the peritoneal cavity. Peritonitis can cause the peritoneal membrane to lose its ability to filter solutes; therefore, peritoneal dialysis would no longer be a treatment option for this client. Hyperglycemia occurs during peritoneal dialysis because of the high glucose content of the dialysate; it’s readily treatable with sliding-scale insulin. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L can be treated by adding potassium to the dialysate solution. An HCT of 35% is lower than normal. However, in this client, the value isn’t abnormally low because of the daily blood samplings. A lower HCT is common in clients with chronic renal failure because of the lack of erythropoietin.
  13. Answer C. During the oliguric phase of ARF, urine output decreases markedly, possibly leading to fluid overload. Limiting oral and I.V. fluid intake can prevent fluid overload and its complications, such as heart failure and pulmonary edema. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing is important for clients with various respiratory disorders. Promoting carbohydrate intake may be helpful in ARF but doesn’t take precedence over fluid limitation. Controlling pain isn’t important because ARF rarely causes pain.
  14. Answer D. Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin should be withheld before hemodialysis. Hypokalemia is one of the electrolyte shifts that occur during dialysis, and a hypokalemic client is at risk for arrhythmias secondary to digitalis toxicity. Phosphate binders and insulin can be administered because they aren’t removed from the blood by dialysis. Some antibiotics are removed by dialysis and should be administered after the procedure to ensure their therapeutic effects. The nurse should check a formulary to determine whether a particular antibiotic should be administered before or after dialysis.
  15. Answer B. Gonorrhea must be reported to the public health department. Chlamydia, genital herpes, and human papillomavirus infection aren’t reportable diseases.
  16. Answer C. Co-trimoxazole is a sulfonamide antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infections. Therefore, absence of bacteria on urine culture indicates that the drug has achieved its desired effect. Although flank pain may decrease as the infection resolves, this isn’t a reliable indicator of the drug’s effectiveness. Co-trimoxazole doesn’t affect urine output or the RBC count.
  17. Answer D. Phenazopyridine may be prescribed in conjunction with an antibiotic for painful bladder infections to promote comfort. Because of its local anesthetic action on the urinary mucosa, phenazopyridine specifically relieves bladder pain. Nitrofurantoin is a urinary antiseptic with no analgesic properties. While ibuprofen and acetaminophen with codeine are analgesics, they don’t exert a direct effect on the urinary mucosa.
  18. Answer A. When preparing for continuous bladder irrigation, a triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter is inserted. The three lumens provide for balloon inflation and continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution.
  19. Answer B. Normally, fluid intake is approximately equal to the urine output. Any other relationship signals an abnormality. For example, fluid intake that is double the urine output indicates fluid retention; fluid intake that is half the urine output indicates dehydration. Normally, fluid intake isn’t inversely proportional to the urine output.
  20. Answer C. Mumps is the most significant childhood infectious disease affecting male fertility. Chickenpox, measles, and scarlet fever don’t affect male fertility.
  21. Answer A. The most common site of renal calculi formation is the kidney. Calculi may travel down the urinary tract with or without causing damage and may lodge anywhere along the tract or may stay within the kidney. The ureter, bladder, and urethra are less common sites of renal calculi formation.
  22. Answer A. Dialysis equilibrium syndrome causes confusion, a decreasing level of consciousness, headache, and seizures. These findings, which may last several days, probably result from a relative excess of interstitial or intracellular solutes caused by rapid solute removal from the blood. The resultant organ swelling interferes with normal physiologic functions. To prevent this syndrome, many dialysis centers keep first-time sessions short and use a reduced blood flow rate. Acute bone pain and confusion are associated with aluminum intoxication, another potential complication of dialysis. Weakness, tingling, and cardiac arrhythmias suggest hyperkalemia, which is associated with renal failure. Hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea signal hemorrhage, another dialysis complication.
  23. Answer B. For an uncomplicated UTI, norfloxacin therapy usually lasts 7 to 10 days. Taking the drug for less than 7 days wouldn’t eradicate such an infection. Taking it for more than 10 days isn’t necessary. Only a client with a complicated UTI must take norfloxacin for 10 to 21 days.
  24. Answer C. The client should report the presence of foul-smelling or cloudy urine. Unless contraindicated, the client should be instructed to drink large quantities of fluid each day to flush the kidneys. Sandlike debris is normal due to residual stone products. Hematuria is common after lithotripsy.
  25. Answer D. The guidelines for initiating bladder retraining include assessing the client’s intake patterns, voiding patterns, and reasons for each accidental voiding. Lowering the client’s fluid intake won’t reduce or prevent incontinence. The client should actually be encouraged to drink 1.5 to 2 L of water per day. A voiding schedule should be established after assessment.
  26. Answer B. Reports of bladder spasms and the urge to void suggest that a blood clot may be occluding the catheter. After TURP, urine normally appears red to pink, and normal saline irrigant usually is infused at a rate of 40 to 60 drops/minute or according to facility protocol. The amount of retained fluid (1,200 ml) should correspond to the amount of instilled fluid, plus the client’s urine output (1,000 ml + 200 ml), which reflects catheter patency.
  27. Answer B. When inserting a urinary catheter, facilitate insertion by asking the client to breathe deeply. Doing this will relax the urinary sphincter. Initiating a stream of urine isn’t recommended during catheter insertion. Turning to the side or holding the labia or penis won’t ease insertion, and doing so may contaminate the sterile field.
  28. Answer D. ARF, characterized by abrupt loss of kidney function, commonly causes oliguria, which is demonstrated by a urine output of 400 ml/24 hours. A serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl isn’t diagnostic of ARF. A BUN level of 22 mg/dl or a temperature of 100.2° F (37.8° C) wouldn’t result from this disorder.
  29. Answer A. TURP is the most widely used procedure for prostate gland removal. Because it requires no incision, TURP is especially suitable for men with relatively minor prostatic enlargements and for those who are poor surgical risks. Suprapubic prostatectomy, retropubic prostatectomy, and transurethral laser incision of the prostate are less common procedures; they all require an incision.
  30. Answer B. Fluid depletion before excretory urography is contraindicated in clients with multiple myeloma, severe diabetes mellitus, and uric acid nephropathy — conditions that can seriously compromise renal function in fluid-depleted clients with reduced renal perfusion. If these clients must undergo excretory urography, they should be well hydrated before the test. Cystic fibrosis, gout, and myasthenia gravis don’t necessitate changes in client preparation for excretory urography.
  31. Answer A. By encouraging a daily fluid intake of at least 2 L, the nurse helps fill the client’s bladder, thereby promoting bladder retraining by stimulating the urge to void. The nurse shouldn’t give the client soda before bedtime; soda acts as a diuretic and may make the client incontinent. The nurse should take the client to the bathroom or offer the bedpan at least every 2 hours throughout the day; twice per day is insufficient. Consultation with a dietitian won’t address the problem of urinary incontinence.
  32. Answer B. Percussion over the costovertebral angle normally produces a dull, thudding sound, which is soft to moderately loud with a moderate pitch and duration. This sound occurs over less dense, mostly fluid-filled matter, such as the kidneys, liver, and spleen. In contrast, a flat sound occurs over highly dense matter such as muscle; hyperresonance occurs over the air-filled, overinflated lungs of a client with pulmonary emphysema or the lungs of a child (because of a thin chest wall); and tympany occurs over enclosed structures containing air, such as the stomach and bowel.
  33. Answer D. An elevated serum potassium level may lead to a life-threatening cardiac arrhythmia, which the nurse can detect immediately by palpating the pulse. The client’s blood pressure may change, but only as a result of the arrhythmia. Therefore, the nurse should assess blood pressure later. The nurse also can delay assessing respirations and temperature because these aren’t affected by the serum potassium level.
  34. Answer C. Infection can occur with renal calculi from urine stasis caused by obstruction. Options A and D aren’t appropriate for this diagnosis, and retention of urine usually occurs, rather than incontinence.
  35. Answer A. As urine output decreases, the serum potassium level rises; if it rises sufficiently, hyperkalemia may occur, possibly triggering a cardiac arrhythmia. Hyperkalemia doesn’t cause paresthesia (sensations of numbness and tingling). Dehydration doesn’t occur during this oliguric phase of ARF, although typically it does arise during the diuretic phase. In a client with ARF, pruritus results from increased phosphates and isn’t associated with hyperkalemia.
  36. Answer C. Although postoperative pain is expected, the nurse should make sure that other factors, such as an obstructed irrigation catheter, aren’t the cause of the pain. After assessing catheter patency, the nurse should administer an analgesic, such as meperidine, as prescribed. Increasing the I.V. flow rate may worsen the pain. Notifying the physician isn’t necessary unless the pain is severe or unrelieved by the prescribed medication.
  37. Answer D. A nurse who discovers a nodule, swelling, or other abnormal finding during a scrotal examination should transilluminate the scrotum by darkening the room and shining a flashlight through the scrotum behind the mass. A scrotum filled with serous fluid transilluminates as a red glow; a more solid lesion, such as a hematoma or mass, doesn’t transilluminate and may appear as a dark shadow. Although the nurse should notify the physician of the abnormal finding, performing transillumination first provides additional information. The nurse can’t uncover more information about a scrotal mass by changing the client’s position and repeating the examination or by performing a rectal examination.
  38. Answer C. In a client with CRF, unrestricted intake of sodium, protein, potassium, and fluid may lead to a dangerous accumulation of electrolytes and protein metabolic products, such as amino acids and ammonia. Therefore, the client must limit intake of sodium; meat, which is high in protein; bananas, which are high in potassium; and fluid, because the failing kidneys can’t secrete adequate urine. Salt substitutes are high in potassium and should be avoided. Extra carbohydrates are needed to prevent protein catabolism.
  39. Answer B. Urinary incontinence isn’t a normal part of aging nor is it a disease. It may be caused by confusion, dehydration, fecal impaction, restricted mobility, or other causes. Certain medications, including diuretics, hypnotics, sedatives, anticholinergics, and antihypertensives, may trigger urinary incontinence. Most clients with urinary incontinence can be treated; some can be cured.
  40. Answer D. If the catheter is blocked by blood clots, it may be irrigated according to physician’s orders or facility protocol. The nurse should use sterile technique to reduce the risk of infection. Urinating around the catheter can cause painful bladder spasms. Encourage the client to drink fluids to dilute the urine and maintain urine output. The catheter remains in place for 2 to 4 days after surgery and is only removed with a physician’s order.
  41. Answer B. When receiving a sulfonamide such as co-trimoxazole, the client should drink at least eight 8-oz glasses of fluid daily to maintain a urine output of at least 1,500 ml/day. Otherwise, inadequate urine output may lead to crystalluria or tubular deposits. For maximum absorption, the client should take this drug at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals. No evidence indicates that antacids interfere with the effects of sulfonamides. To prevent a photosensitivity reaction, the client should avoid direct sunlight during co-trimoxazole therapy.
  42. Answer A. Generalized edema, especially of the face and periorbital area, is a classic sign of acute glomerulonephritis of sudden onset. Other classic signs and symptoms of this disorder include hematuria (not green-tinged urine), proteinuria, fever, chills, weakness, pallor, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. The client also may have moderate to severe hypertension (not hypotension), oliguria or anuria (not polyuria), headache, reduced visual acuity, and abdominal or flank pain.
  43. Answer A. The symptoms of C. albicans include itching and a scant white discharge that has the consistency of cottage cheese. Yellow-green discharge is a sign of Trichomonas vaginalis. Gray-white discharge and a fishy odor are signs of Gardnerella vaginalis.
  44. Answer A. Women with condylomata acuminata are at risk for cancer of the cervix and vulva. Yearly Pap smears are very important for early detection. Because condylomata acuminata is a virus, there is no permanent cure. Because condylomata acuminata can occur on the vulva, a condom won’t protect sexual partners. HPV can be transmitted to other parts of the body, such as the mouth, oropharynx, and larynx.
  45. Answer A. Maintaining a closed indwelling urinary catheter system helps prevent introduction of bacteria; securing the catheter to the client’s leg also decreases the risk of infection by helping to prevent urethral trauma. To flush bacteria from the urinary tract, the nurse should encourage the client to drink at least 10 glasses of fluid daily, if possible. Douching and feminine deodorants may irritate the urinary tract and should be discouraged.
  46. Answer A. By encouraging a daily fluid intake of at least 2 L, the nurse helps fill the client’s bladder, thereby promoting bladder retraining by stimulating the urge to void. The nurse shouldn’t give the client soda before bedtime; soda acts as a diuretic and may make the client incontinent. The nurse should take the client to the bathroom or offer the bedpan at least every 2 hours throughout the day; twice per day is insufficient. Consultation with a dietitian won’t address the problem of urinary incontinence.
  47. Answer B. Most catheters have a self-sealing port for obtaining a urine specimen. Antiseptic solution is used to reduce the risk of introducing microorganisms into the catheter. Tubing shouldn’t be disconnected from the urinary catheter. Any break in the closed urine drainage system may allow the entry of microorganisms. Urine in urine drainage bags may not be fresh and may contain bacteria, giving false test results. When there is no urine in the tubing, the catheter may be clamped for no more than 30 minutes to allow urine to collect.
  48. Answer D. Symptoms of gonorrhea in men include purulent, foul-smelling drainage from the penis and painful urination. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet are symptoms of the secondary stage of syphilis. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis are a sign of human papillomavirus. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis may be a sign of the first stage of genital herpes.
  49. Answer A. Kayexalate is a sodium exchange resin. Thus the client will gain sodium as potassium is lost in the bowel. For the exchange to occur, Kayexalate must be in contact with the bowel for at least 30 minutes. Sorbitol in the Kayexalate enema causes diarrhea, which increases potassium loss and decreases the potential for Kayexalate retention.
  50. Answer A. Because acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver, its dosage and dosing schedule need not be adjusted for a client with ARF. In contrast, the dosages and schedules for gentamicin and ticarcillin, which are metabolized and excreted by the kidney, should be adjusted. Because cyclosporine may cause nephrotoxicity, the nurse must monitor both the dosage and blood drug level in a client receiving this drug.

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