Text Mode – Text version of the exam 1. While administering peritoneal dialysis to Mr. Thompson in the dialysis unit, Nurse Emily notes that the return fluid is draining more slowly than usual. What is Nurse Emily’s most appropriate immediate course of action to address the slow drainage of return fluid during Mr. Thompson’s peritoneal dialysis? A) Adjust Mr. Thompson’s bed to a reverse Trendelenburg position. 2. David, a dialysis nurse, is preparing a 54-year-old patient for hemodialysis. The patient has a functioning arteriovenous (AV) fistula in place. What should David prioritize to ensure the patency of the AV fistula before initiating hemodialysis? A) Apply a warm compress to the AV fistula site. 3. Nurse Emily is attending to Lisa, a 30-year-old woman who is undergoing hemodialysis treatment. Lisa has an internal arteriovenous fistula in her arm for vascular access. Emily wants to take measures to minimize the risk of complications associated with the arteriovenous fistula. What action should Emily take to prevent complications related to this vascular access device? A. Refrain from measuring blood pressure on the arm containing the arteriovenous fistula. 4. Nurse David is overseeing the hemodialysis treatment of a patient when he notices that she starts to become agitated. She complains of a headache and mentions feeling nauseous. David needs to identify the likely complication that could be manifesting. What complication should Nurse David suspect based on the patient’s symptoms during hemodialysis? A. Acute hemolysis. 5. During a session of hemodialysis, Nurse Alex notices that her patient, Mrs. Wilson, starts to complain about experiencing muscle cramps. What should Nurse Alex do immediately to effectively relieve Mrs. Wilson’s muscle cramps? A) Urge Mrs. Wilson to perform active range-of-motion exercises. 6. Nurse Sarah is reviewing the care plan for Mr. Anderson, a patient with chronic renal failure who is complaining about persistent itching or pruritus. What instruction should Nurse Sarah include in Mr. Anderson’s teaching plan to manage this symptom? A) Maintain short, clean fingernails. 7. Nurse David is developing a care plan for Ms. Garcia, who has been diagnosed with renal calculi. What intervention should Nurse David include in the care plan to best manage Ms. Garcia’s condition? A) Limit fluid intake to reduce urine output. 8. An 18-year-old college student is admitted to the hospital presenting with dark urine, fever, and flank pain. After diagnostic tests, the student is diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. What health history factor is most likely to be present in this student’s case? A) Previous renal trauma. 9. Nurse Lauren is caring for a patient, Mr. Patel, who has been admitted with acute renal calculi and is experiencing significant pain. What type of medication is generally indicated for the management of pain related to acute renal calculi? A) Salicylates 10. Nurse Megan is attending a continuing education seminar on preventing urinary tract infections (UTIs) in hospitalized patients. The speaker asks the audience which factor is primarily responsible for the majority of UTIs in hospitalized settings. What is the most likely answer? A) Insufficient perineal hygiene. 11. Nurse Anthony is on his rounds when he checks on Mrs. Smith, who has recently been diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis. Based on her diagnosis, which symptoms would Nurse Anthony expect to observe in Mrs. Smith? A) A burning sensation during urination. 12. Nurse Laura is caring for Mr. Harris, who has been recently diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Based on the diagnosis, what clinical manifestations would Nurse Laura expect to see in Mr. Harris? A) Painful urination and low blood pressure. 13. While attending to Mrs. Jones, who is currently in the oliguric phase of renal failure, Nurse Rebecca wonders what level of 24-hour urine output she should expect to be below for this patient. A) Less than 400 milliliters. 14. Nurse Olivia is conducting an educational session on the early signs of kidney disease for a group of nursing students. She poses a question: What is the most frequently observed early sign of kidney disease? A) Excessive thirst and hunger. 15. Nurse Ethan is reviewing the medical history of Mrs. Clark, who reports that she leaks urine whenever she coughs, sneezes, or lifts heavy items. Based on this description, what type of urinary incontinence is Mrs. Clark likely experiencing? A) Reflex Incontinence. 16. Nurse Amanda is responsible for caring for Mr. Johnson, who has just undergone a prostatectomy. What complication requires immediate and priority assessment in Mr. Johnson’s post-operative care? A) The onset of deep vein thrombosis symptoms. 17. Nurse William is speaking to a men’s health group about the importance of screening for prostate cancer. One of the attendees asks him what is the most indicative diagnostic test for detecting prostate cancer. What should Nurse William reply? A) Excretory urography as a diagnostic measure. 18. Nurse Emily is providing education to a 22-year-old patient with diabetic nephropathy. The patient expresses the belief that since they are young and have two kidneys, sticking to their insulin schedule will prevent kidney damage. What is the best response that Nurse Emily should give? A) “Despite following your insulin schedule, the risk of kidney damage remains a concern.” 19. Nurse Jennifer is preparing discharge instructions for a patient who was diagnosed with sepsis stemming from a urinary tract infection (UTI). What key point should Nurse Jennifer include in her patient’s discharge teaching plan? A) Refrain from using tampons. 20. Nurse Zachary is preparing medication education for a patient diagnosed with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium). What important information should Nurse Zachary include in the patient’s medication teaching? A) “Administer this medication between your meals and at bedtime.” 21. Nurse Olivia is caring for a 32-year-old patient and is reviewing the patient’s medical chart. Based on the symptoms exhibited, what would lead Nurse Olivia to suspect the patient may have acute glomerulonephritis? A) Symptoms of fever, chills, and pain in the right upper quadrant radiating to the back. 22. Nurse Anthony is taking care of a patient who has been diagnosed with end-stage renal disease. What should be the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient? A) Excess Fluid Volume. 23. Nurse Sarah is caring for a patient with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) who has an arteriovenous fistula in the left arm for hemodialysis. What intervention should be included in the patient’s plan of care? A) Keep the left arm completely dry. 24. Nurse Emma is caring for a 60-year-old patient diagnosed with pyelonephritis and suspected septicemia. The patient has had recurrent UTIs, is sleep-deprived, and has lost weight due to frequent urination, including at night. The patient’s lab results indicate sodium levels of 154 mEq/L, osmolarity at 340 mOsm/L, glucose at 127 mg/dl, and potassium at 3.9 mEq/L. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient? A) Altered Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements related to the catabolic effects of insulin deficiency. 25. Nurse Laura is assessing a patient suspected of progressing through the stages of acute renal failure. What sign would indicate to her that the patient is in the second phase of acute renal failure? A) Urine production is less than 400 ml per day. 26. Nurse Brian is reviewing the medical history of several patients admitted to the general medical floor. Based on their profiles, which patient is at the greatest risk for developing a urinary tract infection (UTI)? A) A 28-year-old individual diagnosed with angina. 27. Nurse Emily is caring for a patient who recently underwent surgery to create an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis. What key information should Nurse Emily keep in mind when providing care for this patient? A) Auscultating the fistula with a stethoscope is not advised. 28. Nurse Olivia is caring for a patient who has diabetes mellitus and has recently started hemodialysis due to renal failure. What would be the most appropriate dietary recommendation for this patient on the days between dialysis treatments? A) A low-protein diet with no restrictions on water intake. 29. Nurse Jake is monitoring a patient who has just completed their first session of hemodialysis. Shortly afterward, the patient starts to experience a headache, elevated blood pressure, restlessness, mental confusion, nausea, and vomiting. What condition is most likely indicated by these symptoms? A) Peritonitis 30. Nurse Maya is working on a rehabilitation plan for a patient who has a neurogenic bladder. Which action should be considered the most critical when undertaking bladder training for this patient? A) Promote the practice of Kegel exercises. 31. Nurse Alex is discussing dietary modifications with a patient who has both diabetes and a longstanding history of multiple renal stones. Now facing chronic renal failure, which nutritional component needs to be notably decreased in this patient’s meal plan? A) Dietary fats 32. Nurse Emily is responsible for a patient who recently had an arteriovenous fistula placed for hemodialysis. She knows it’s crucial to regularly assess for patency. What is the best method for Emily to check the patency of this arteriovenous fistula? A) Aspirate blood from the fistula using a needle and syringe. 33. Nurse Sarah is caring for a paraplegic patient who has been diagnosed with renal calculi. Sarah is trying to understand the contributing factors that led to the formation of these calculi. Which factor is likely to have contributed to the development of renal calculi in this patient? A) Elevated fluid consumption. 34. Nurse John is formulating a care plan for a patient who is in end-stage renal disease. Among the various aspects of patient care that need to be addressed, what would be the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient? A) Nutritional imbalance: insufficient dietary intake. 35. Nurse Emily is closely monitoring the cardiac status of a patient with end-stage renal disease. The cardiac monitor starts showing frequent PVCs (Premature Ventricular Contractions). What is the priority nursing intervention for this situation? A) Administer intravenous lidocaine (Xylocaine) to the patient. 36. Nurse Sarah is conducting a follow-up visit in the outpatient clinic for a patient who recently received a kidney transplant. The patient reports discovering a lump in her breast. What should Nurse Sarah consider regarding transplant recipients? A) At a lower likelihood for developing cancer, thus the lump is probably non-malignant. 37. Nurse James is crafting a care plan focused on the nursing diagnosis of “risk for infection” for his patient who has recently undergone a kidney transplant. What would be an appropriate goal to set for this patient? A) Resume usual fluid consumption within a 48 to 72-hour timeframe. 38. You’re caring for a patient who recently underwent a kidney transplant. You become concerned about the possibility of kidney transplant rejection. Which symptoms would arouse your suspicion? A) Elevated body temperature, an increase in weight, and reduced urine production. 39. Nurse Karen is caring for a patient who has just been wheeled back from the operating theater following a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. She’s vigilant for signs of potential complications, particularly acute renal failure. What symptom should alert Nurse Karen to the possibility of acute renal failure in this postoperative patient? A. Oliguria 40. Nurse Anthony is caring for a patient diagnosed with acute renal failure. He notes that the patient is also experiencing elevated blood pressure levels. Anthony wants to identify the most prevalent cause of hypertension in the context of acute renal failure. What is the most common cause of hypertension in cases of acute renal failure? A. Low levels of red blood cells. 41. Nurse Olivia is monitoring a postoperative patient who has been back from surgery for six hours. The patient has an indwelling urinary catheter, which was empty upon return but now shows only 120ml of urine. Olivia confirms that the drainage system is not obstructed. What is Olivia’s priority intervention in this situation? A. Irrigate the urinary catheter with sterile saline or water. 42. Nurse William is setting up for the urinary catheterization of a patient who has recently suffered from a traumatic injury. As he gets ready, William notices that there’s blood present at the opening of the urethra (urethral meatus). What should be William’s priority action in this situation? A. Analyze the discharge for hidden blood prior to inserting the catheter. 43. Nurse Jane is closely monitoring a patient who has been diagnosed with nephritic syndrome. Jane is eager to identify any positive indicators that would suggest her patient is on the path to recovery. What change would signify that the patient with nephritic syndrome is recovering? A. Decreased levels of serum albumin. 44. Nurse Ethan is reviewing the medical histories of two different patients: one with renal failure and another with prerenal failure. Ethan aims to differentiate the two conditions based on treatment responsiveness. Which statement accurately distinguishes prerenal failure from renal failure? A. In prerenal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels can be lowered through hemodialysis. 45. Nurse Isabella is working with a patient who may need to transition to continuous peritoneal dialysis. Before making any recommendations, she needs to evaluate whether the patient meets certain criteria to be eligible for this treatment option. What is a required criterion for a patient to be considered for continuous peritoneal dialysis? A. Previous attempts at hemodialysis must have been unsuccessful. 46. Nurse Laura is preparing a teaching care plan for a patient diagnosed with cystitis, who is being treated with phenazopyridine (Pyridium). Laura wants to include essential guidance for the safe and effective use of this medication. What instruction should Nurse Laura include in the care plan for this patient? A. Administer phenazopyridine immediately prior to urinating to alleviate discomfort. 47. Nurse Melissa is caring for a patient with renal failure and has orders to administer Polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). She understands that this medication has a specific role in managing the complications associated with renal failure. What is the primary purpose of using Polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) in patients with renal failure? A. To swap potassium ions for sodium ions. 48. Nurse Emily is assessing a patient who presents with intense pain on the right side of his lower back, nausea, vomiting, and restlessness. The patient also appears somewhat pale and is sweating. His vital signs are: BP 140/90 mmHg, Pulse 118 beats/min., Respirations 33 breaths/min., and Temperature 98.0°F. Based on the subjective data, which symptom most strongly suggests the diagnosis of renal calculi (kidney stones)? A. Vomiting that resembles coffee grounds in color. 49. Nurse Olivia is caring for a patient who has recently undergone a kidney transplant. She understands the importance of immunosuppressive therapy to prevent rejection of the new organ. For how long is immunosuppression generally continued following a kidney transplantation? A. Only for one week post-transplant. 50. Nurse Anna is evaluating a patient who may be suffering from a urinary tract infection (UTI). To further confirm the diagnosis, Anna pays close attention to the patient’s subjective symptoms. Which statement from the patient would most likely indicate the presence of a UTI? A. “There’s a sweet odor coming from my urine.” 1. Correct answer: B) Inspect the outflow tubing for any kinks or obstructions. When administering peritoneal dialysis, it’s crucial to ensure that the dialysate fluid drains properly. Slow drainage could be due to a variety of factors, but the most immediate and common issue to check for is kinks or obstructions in the outflow tubing. Kinks can easily occur and obstruct the flow of fluid, making it difficult for the dialysate to drain from the peritoneal cavity. By inspecting and straightening the tubing, Nurse Emily can quickly resolve the issue without causing any harm to the patient. Think of the outflow tubing as a garden hose. If you’re trying to water your plants and the water isn’t flowing well, the first thing you’d check is whether the hose is kinked or obstructed. Straightening out the hose usually solves the problem immediately. Incorrect answer options: A) Adjust Mr. Thompson’s bed to a reverse Trendelenburg position. While adjusting the bed’s position might help in some cases, it’s not the most immediate action to take. The reverse Trendelenburg position could potentially facilitate drainage, but it’s not the first thing to check when drainage is slow. C) Elevate the drainage bag higher than Mr. Thompson’s abdomen. Elevating the drainage bag would actually work against gravity, making it even more difficult for the dialysate to drain. The drainage bag should be lower than the patient’s abdomen to facilitate drainage by gravity. D) Request Mr. Thompson to perform a cough. Asking the patient to cough is not the most immediate action to take for slow drainage. While coughing might help dislodge any internal obstructions, it’s not the first thing to check. The tubing is the most likely culprit for slow drainage and should be inspected first. 2. Correct answer: B) Auscultate the AV fistula for bruit and palpate for thrill. David should prioritize auscultating the AV fistula for a bruit and palpating for a thrill to ensure its patency before initiating hemodialysis. A functioning AV fistula should have a consistent, swooshing sound (bruit) that is audible with a stethoscope and a buzzing vibration (thrill) that is palpable. These signs indicate that blood is flowing through the fistula as it should, allowing for efficient hemodialysis. If the bruit or thrill is absent, it may mean that the fistula is clotted or not functioning properly, and using it for hemodialysis could be risky. Think of the AV fistula as a busy highway. The cars (blood cells) are moving quickly and smoothly along the road. The sound of the traffic (bruit) and the vibration of the cars on the road (thrill) can be sensed. If the highway is blocked or closed, the sound and vibration will cease, indicating a problem. Just as you would check traffic conditions before embarking on a journey, David checks the bruit and thrill to ensure the “highway” is open for the “journey” of hemodialysis. The AV fistula is a surgically created connection between an artery and a vein, which allows blood to be removed, cleaned, and returned to the body during hemodialysis. The bruit and thrill are physical manifestations of the turbulent blood flow through the fistula, which is necessary for effective dialysis. Ensuring the patency of the AV fistula is crucial for successful hemodialysis treatment. Incorrect answer options: A) Apply a warm compress to the AV fistula site. Applying a warm compress to the AV fistula site may help increase blood flow, but it is not the priority action for ensuring patency of the AV fistula before initiating hemodialysis. C) Administer a bolus of saline through the AV fistula. Administering a bolus of saline through the AV fistula is not a standard or appropriate method for assessing the patency of an AV fistula and could potentially cause harm. D) Elevate the extremity with the AV fistula above heart level. Elevating the extremity with the AV fistula above heart level is not a method for assessing the patency of an AV fistula and does not contribute to ensuring successful hemodialysis. 3. Correct answer: A) Refrain from measuring blood pressure on the arm containing the arteriovenous fistula. An arteriovenous (AV) fistula is a surgically created connection between an artery and a vein, commonly used for hemodialysis. One of the key measures to prevent complications related to an AV fistula is to avoid measuring blood pressure on the arm that contains the fistula. Taking blood pressure on that arm can compress the fistula and potentially lead to clot formation or stenosis (narrowing) of the vessel. This can compromise the effectiveness of the dialysis and may even lead to more serious complications requiring surgical intervention. Imagine the AV fistula as a specialized tunnel built to handle a high volume of traffic (blood flow). If you were to put a roadblock (blood pressure cuff) in that tunnel, it would disrupt the flow of traffic, potentially causing accidents or damage to the tunnel itself. Just like you’d avoid putting a roadblock in a critical tunnel, you should avoid taking blood pressure on the arm with the AV fistula to ensure smooth and safe blood flow. In the context of nursing care, this action is a preventive measure that aligns with best practices for maintaining the integrity of the AV fistula. It’s a simple yet crucial step that can significantly minimize the risk of complications, thereby ensuring that the patient can continue to receive effective hemodialysis treatment. Incorrect answer options: B) Establish intravenous lines proximal to the location of the arteriovenous fistula. Establishing IV lines proximal to the AV fistula can actually increase the risk of infection and complications. Any procedure that involves breaking the skin near the fistula can introduce bacteria, which can then travel to the fistula site, leading to infection and other complications. C) Feel for pulses distal to the arteriovenous fistula site. While it’s important to monitor circulation, feeling for pulses distal to the AV fistula site is not a preventive measure for complications specifically related to the fistula. It’s more of an assessment action rather than a preventive one. D) Notify the healthcare provider if a bruit or thrill is detected over the arteriovenous fistula. Contrary to being a sign of complication, the presence of a bruit (a whooshing sound heard via stethoscope) or thrill (a vibrating sensation felt on palpation) is actually a positive sign that indicates the fistula is patent and functioning well. Reporting this would not be a preventive measure against complications. 4. Correct answer: D) Disequilibrium syndrome. Disequilibrium syndrome is a neurological complication that can occur during hemodialysis, particularly in patients who are new to the treatment or those who have had a significant change in their dialysis prescription. The symptoms include headache, nausea, restlessness, and in severe cases, seizures or coma. The syndrome is thought to occur due to a rapid decrease in blood urea levels during dialysis, which creates an osmotic imbalance between the blood and the brain. This imbalance can lead to cerebral edema, or swelling of the brain tissue, manifesting as the symptoms the patient is experiencing. Think of your brain as a sponge sitting in a bowl of water. The water represents the blood, and the dissolved substances in it are like the urea and other waste products. When you undergo hemodialysis, it’s like quickly draining and replacing the water in the bowl. The sponge (your brain) doesn’t have time to adjust to this rapid change, leading to an imbalance. This imbalance causes the sponge to swell, similar to how the brain swells in Disequilibrium Syndrome, leading to symptoms like headaches and nausea. In this situation, Nurse David should immediately notify the healthcare provider and may need to slow down or temporarily halt the dialysis treatment to allow the patient’s body to adjust. Medications like antihypertensive drugs or antiseizure medications may also be administered depending on the severity of the symptoms. Incorrect answer options: A) Acute hemolysis. Acute hemolysis would present with symptoms like back pain, chest pain, hypotension, and possibly hemoglobinuria (pink or reddish urine). Hemolysis is the destruction of red blood cells, and it would not typically cause headache and nausea as primary symptoms. B) Bacterial or viral infection. While infections can occur due to contaminated dialysis equipment or poor aseptic technique, the symptoms would more likely include fever, chills, and possibly localized redness or swelling at the site of vascular access. Headache and nausea are not the hallmark symptoms of an infection in this context. C) Entrapment of air in the bloodstream. Air embolism would lead to symptoms like chest pain, difficulty breathing, and a sense of impending doom. It’s a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention, but the symptoms are not aligned with headache and nausea. 5. Correct answer: D) Infuse a normal saline solution intravenously. Muscle cramps during hemodialysis are a common but distressing complication. They are often caused by the rapid removal of fluid from the body, leading to hypovolemia and electrolyte imbalances. Infusing a normal saline solution intravenously can help to restore the fluid balance and alleviate the cramps. Normal saline is isotonic, meaning it has the same concentration of solutes as the body’s cells, making it an ideal choice for quickly restoring intravascular volume without causing further imbalances. Imagine your body as a car’s cooling system, where the coolant (blood) circulates to keep the engine (your organs) running smoothly. During hemodialysis, it’s like draining the coolant too quickly, causing the engine to overheat (muscle cramps). Infusing normal saline is like adding more coolant to the system, restoring balance and allowing the engine to function properly again. Nurse Alex should monitor Mrs. Wilson closely after administering the saline, checking for any signs of fluid overload, such as edema or shortness of breath. She should also consult with the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the dialysis prescription to prevent future episodes of cramping. Incorrect answer options: A) Urge Mrs. Wilson to perform active range-of-motion exercises. While range-of-motion exercises can sometimes help relieve muscle cramps, they are not the most immediate and effective solution when the cramps are due to fluid and electrolyte imbalances caused by hemodialysis. B) Accelerate the rate of the ongoing hemodialysis treatment. Accelerating the rate of hemodialysis would likely exacerbate the problem by removing even more fluid and electrolytes from the body, making the cramps worse rather than better. C) Administer a 5% dextrose solution intravenously. Administering a 5% dextrose solution would not be effective in this situation. Dextrose is a form of sugar and does not address the underlying issue of fluid and electrolyte imbalance that is causing the muscle cramps. 6. Correct answer: A) Maintain short, clean fingernails. Persistent itching or pruritus is a common symptom in patients with chronic renal failure. The itching is often due to the accumulation of uremic toxins, dry skin, and sometimes elevated levels of phosphorus. One of the best ways to manage this symptom is to maintain short, clean fingernails. Long or dirty nails can harbor bacteria and increase the risk of skin infections when scratching. Short, clean nails minimize this risk and also reduce the potential for skin trauma, which can exacerbate the itching and lead to further complications like infection or scarring. Think of your skin as a delicate fabric and your nails as a pair of scissors. If the fabric has a small snag (itch), using a blunt, clean pair of scissors (short, clean nails) to carefully trim it is far less damaging than using a sharp, dirty pair of scissors (long, dirty nails) that could make the snag worse or introduce dirt into it. Nurse Sarah should educate Mr. Anderson on the importance of keeping his nails short and clean as part of his overall skin care regimen. She should also discuss other measures to manage pruritus, such as using hypoallergenic lotions and avoiding irritants, to provide a comprehensive approach to symptom management. Incorrect answer options: B) Vigorously rub the affected skin areas with a towel. Vigorously rubbing the skin can lead to further irritation and even cause micro-tears in the skin, making it more susceptible to infection. This approach would likely exacerbate the problem rather than alleviate it. C) Utilize alcohol-based emollients for skin moisture. Alcohol-based emollients can actually dry out the skin further, which would likely worsen the itching. Patients with chronic renal failure often already have dry skin, so it’s important to use products that will provide moisture without causing irritation. D) Take baths frequently to keep the skin clean. Frequent bathing can strip the skin of its natural oils, leading to even drier skin and potentially worsening the itching. It’s generally recommended to bathe less frequently and to use mild, moisturizing soaps when dealing with pruritus in chronic renal failure. 7. Correct answer: D) Instruct the patient to strain all urine. Renal calculi, commonly known as kidney stones, are solid mineral deposits that form in the kidneys. Straining all urine is an essential intervention for managing this condition, as it allows for the collection and analysis of passed stones. Understanding the composition of the stone can guide treatment and preventive measures. For example, if the stone is made of calcium oxalate, dietary changes may be recommended to reduce oxalate intake. Straining urine can also help in monitoring the progress of the condition, giving both the healthcare provider and the patient valuable information on whether the stone has passed and what further interventions may be needed. Think of kidney stones as unwanted debris in a water filtration system. If you don’t know what kind of debris is clogging the system, it’s hard to know how to prevent it in the future. Straining the water (urine) allows you to identify and analyze the debris (kidney stones), so you can take specific actions to prevent future clogs. Nurse David should instruct Ms. Garcia on how to properly strain her urine and what to do with any collected stones. This is a proactive approach that not only helps in the management of the current condition but also aids in the prevention of future episodes. It’s a simple yet effective way to manage renal calculi and should be included in the comprehensive care plan. Incorrect answer options: A) Limit fluid intake to reduce urine output. Limiting fluid intake is counterproductive in the management of renal calculi. Reduced fluid intake can lead to concentrated urine, which increases the risk of stone formation. Adequate hydration is generally recommended to facilitate the passage of kidney stones. B) Advise the patient to maintain complete bed rest. Complete bed rest is not generally recommended for patients with renal calculi unless there are specific complications that warrant it. Physical activity can actually help facilitate the passage of smaller stones. C) Encourage a diet high in purines. A diet high in purines would be detrimental, as it could lead to the formation of uric acid stones. Dietary management for renal calculi often involves reducing intake of substances that contribute to stone formation, such as oxalates and, in some cases, purines. 8. Correct answer: C) A recent episode of a sore throat. Acute glomerulonephritis is often a post-infectious complication, commonly following a streptococcal infection like a sore throat or pharyngitis. The body’s immune response to the infection can inadvertently cause inflammation in the glomeruli, the filtering units of the kidneys. This inflammation can lead to symptoms like dark urine, fever, and flank pain. Therefore, a recent episode of a sore throat would be the most likely health history factor in this 18-year-old college student’s case. Imagine your body’s immune system as a vigilant neighborhood watch. When an intruder (bacteria causing sore throat) is detected, the neighborhood watch goes into high alert, setting up barricades and checkpoints (immune response). Sometimes, these barricades can block a critical road (glomeruli in the kidneys), causing a traffic jam (inflammation) that leads to problems in the neighborhood (symptoms like dark urine and flank pain). In the context of acute glomerulonephritis, understanding the link to recent infections can guide treatment. Antibiotics may be administered to completely eradicate any lingering streptococcal infection, and other treatments may focus on managing symptoms and supporting kidney function while the inflammation resolves. Incorrect answer options: A) Previous renal trauma. While renal trauma can lead to kidney issues, it is not commonly associated with acute glomerulonephritis. Trauma would more likely result in immediate symptoms like hematuria (blood in the urine) and pain, rather than an inflammatory condition like glomerulonephritis. B) Family history of acute glomerulonephritis. Although a family history might suggest a predisposition to kidney issues, acute glomerulonephritis is generally not considered a hereditary condition. It is more often triggered by an external factor like infection. D) History of renal calculi (kidney stones). Kidney stones are primarily a problem of urinary obstruction and are not typically associated with glomerular inflammation. The symptoms and underlying pathology of renal calculi and acute glomerulonephritis are quite different. 9. Correct answer: D) Narcotic analgesics. Pain management in acute renal calculi often requires potent analgesics due to the intense pain associated with the condition. Narcotic analgesics, such as morphine or oxycodone, are generally indicated for this level of pain. These medications act on the central nervous system to alter the perception of pain, providing significant relief. They are often administered intravenously for rapid onset of action, especially in acute settings where the patient is experiencing severe discomfort. Imagine the pain from renal calculi as a blaring fire alarm in a building. While other medications might muffle the sound a bit (like putting a pillow over the alarm), narcotic analgesics effectively switch off the alarm (block the pain signals), allowing the occupants (in this case, Mr. Patel) to find relief and focus on other aspects of recovery. Nurse Lauren should closely monitor Mr. Patel for potential side effects of narcotic analgesics, such as respiratory depression, constipation, and potential for dependency. It’s crucial to balance effective pain management with vigilant monitoring to ensure patient safety while facilitating recovery and comfort. Incorrect answer options: A) Salicylates. Salicylates like aspirin are generally not potent enough to manage the severe pain associated with acute renal calculi. Additionally, they have antiplatelet effects that could potentially lead to bleeding complications. B) Muscle relaxants. Muscle relaxants act on skeletal muscle and are not effective for visceral pain like that experienced with renal calculi. They are generally not indicated for this type of pain management. C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). While NSAIDs like ibuprofen can be effective for mild to moderate pain, they are generally not sufficient for the severe pain associated with acute renal calculi. Additionally, NSAIDs can have renal side effects, which may not be desirable in a patient already experiencing kidney issues. 10. Correct answer: B) The use of invasive procedures. In hospitalized settings, the majority of urinary tract infections (UTIs) are often associated with the use of invasive procedures, particularly the use of urinary catheters. Catheters can introduce bacteria into the urinary tract, bypassing the body’s natural defenses against infection. This is especially true if the catheter is not inserted using aseptic technique, is not maintained properly, or is left in place for an extended period. Hospitals have protocols to minimize the risk, such as using catheters only when medically necessary and removing them as soon as possible, but the risk remains significant. Think of the urinary tract as a secure, gated community. Normally, the gate (urethra) and the security guards (natural flora and immune cells) keep out unwanted visitors (bacteria). When a catheter is inserted, it’s like creating a side entrance that bypasses the gate and security, allowing unwanted visitors easy access to the community, increasing the risk of a “break-in” (infection). Nurse Megan should take this information back to her clinical setting and ensure that best practices are being followed for catheter care. This includes proper hand hygiene before and after handling a catheter, using aseptic technique during insertion, and regular monitoring for signs of infection. Education and vigilance are key in preventing catheter-associated UTIs. Incorrect answer options: A) Insufficient perineal hygiene. While poor hygiene can contribute to UTIs, especially in non-hospitalized settings, it is generally not the primary cause of UTIs in a hospital setting where hygiene is more rigorously controlled. C) Immunosuppressed state of the patient. While an immunosuppressed state can make a patient more susceptible to infections, including UTIs, it is not the primary cause of UTIs in hospitalized settings. The risk is more directly related to invasive procedures like catheterization. D) Inadequate fluid intake. While inadequate fluid intake can contribute to UTIs by reducing the frequency of urination, which helps to flush bacteria out of the system, it is not the primary cause of UTIs in hospitalized settings. Again, the risk is more directly related to invasive procedures. 11. Correct answer: B) Tenderness at the costovertebral angle along with chills. Acute pyelonephritis is a bacterial infection of the kidneys, often a progression of a lower urinary tract infection. One of the hallmark symptoms of this condition is tenderness at the costovertebral angle, which is the angle formed by the vertebral column and the costal margin. This tenderness is indicative of kidney involvement. Chills are also a common symptom, often accompanied by fever, as they signify that the body is fighting off an infection. Imagine your kidneys as two busy subway stations in a city (your body). Normally, they efficiently manage the flow of trains (urine) and passengers (blood cells). When acute pyelonephritis occurs, it’s like a sudden winter storm hitting one of the subway stations. The area around the station (costovertebral angle) becomes sensitive and tender due to the extra work needed to keep the station running (fighting off infection). Meanwhile, the sudden drop in temperature (chills) is a sign that something is not normal and needs immediate attention. Nurse Anthony should be vigilant in monitoring these symptoms, as they can guide the treatment plan. Antibiotic therapy is usually the first line of treatment, and it’s crucial to ensure that the medication is effective in alleviating these symptoms. If Mrs. Smith continues to experience tenderness and chills, further diagnostic tests may be needed, and the treatment plan may need to be adjusted. Incorrect answer options: A) A burning sensation during urination. While a burning sensation during urination is a common symptom of lower urinary tract infections, it is not specific to acute pyelonephritis. This symptom alone would not be sufficient to diagnose or monitor the condition. C) Jaundice and pain in the flank area. Jaundice is not a typical symptom of acute pyelonephritis. It is more commonly associated with liver conditions. While flank pain could be present, it is not as specific as costovertebral angle tenderness for diagnosing acute pyelonephritis. D) Increased frequency of urination and urination at night. These symptoms are more commonly associated with lower urinary tract infections or benign prostatic hyperplasia in men. They are not specific to acute pyelonephritis and would not be the primary symptoms Nurse Anthony would expect to observe in Mrs. Smith. 12. Correct answer: C) Reduced urine output and generalized swelling. Acute glomerulonephritis is an inflammatory condition affecting the glomeruli, the kidney’s filtering units. One of the primary manifestations of this condition is reduced urine output, also known as oliguria. This happens because the inflamed glomeruli are less efficient at filtering waste and excess fluid from the blood. Another common symptom is generalized swelling or edema, particularly in the face, hands, and feet. This occurs because the kidneys are not effectively removing excess fluid from the body, leading to fluid retention. Think of the kidneys as two waste management facilities in a city (your body). When they’re functioning well, they efficiently process waste (filter blood) and keep the city clean (maintain fluid balance). But when acute glomerulonephritis occurs, it’s like a strike happening at both facilities. The waste (urine) isn’t processed as efficiently, leading to a backlog (reduced urine output). Meanwhile, the garbage starts to pile up in various neighborhoods (generalized swelling) because it’s not being removed. Nurse Laura should closely monitor Mr. Harris’s urine output and fluid balance, as these are key indicators of kidney function. She should also assess for edema and other signs of fluid retention. Treatment often involves medications like corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and diuretics to help remove excess fluid, along with dietary modifications to reduce salt and protein intake. Incorrect answer options: A) Painful urination and low blood pressure. Painful urination is more indicative of a urinary tract infection rather than acute glomerulonephritis. Low blood pressure is also not a typical symptom; in fact, high blood pressure is more commonly associated with kidney issues. B) Increased thirst and frequent urination. These symptoms are more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes mellitus. In acute glomerulonephritis, the urine output is generally reduced, not increased. D) Chills and pain in the area between the ribs and hip. Chills are generally indicative of an infection, but they are not specific to acute glomerulonephritis. Pain between the ribs and hip is too vague and could be related to various conditions, but it is not a hallmark of acute glomerulonephritis. 13. Correct answer: A) Less than 400 milliliters The oliguric phase of renal failure is characterized by a significant reduction in urine output. In this phase, the kidneys are unable to adequately filter waste products and excess fluid from the blood, leading to a decrease in urine production. A 24-hour urine output of less than 400 milliliters is generally considered to be indicative of the oliguric phase. This low output can lead to fluid overload, electrolyte imbalances, and the accumulation of waste products in the body, all of which are serious concerns that require immediate medical attention. Imagine the kidneys as two dams controlling the flow of a river (blood). Normally, these dams open their gates to let a certain amount of water (urine) pass through, keeping the river’s ecosystem (the body) in balance. During the oliguric phase, it’s as if the dam’s gates are stuck partially closed, allowing only a trickle of water to pass through. This leads to water accumulating upstream (fluid overload) and affecting the entire ecosystem. Nurse Rebecca should closely monitor Mrs. Jones’s fluid balance, electrolyte levels, and overall renal function. She should also be vigilant for signs of fluid overload such as edema, hypertension, and shortness of breath. Treatment may include fluid restriction, diuretics, and other medications to manage electrolyte imbalances, along with dialysis if the condition is severe. Incorrect answer options: B) Below 200 milliliters. While a urine output below 200 milliliters is indeed very low and concerning, the threshold for the oliguric phase is generally considered to be less than 400 milliliters. An output this low would be extremely critical and require immediate intervention. C) Under 800 milliliters. An output under 800 milliliters may be lower than normal but is not typically considered to be in the range of oliguria. It may be indicative of other issues but not necessarily acute renal failure in the oliguric phase. D) Not exceeding 1000 milliliters. A 24-hour urine output not exceeding 1000 milliliters is within the lower range of normal output for an adult and would not be indicative of the oliguric phase of renal failure. 14. Correct answer: C) Proteinuria. Proteinuria, or the presence of an abnormal amount of protein in the urine, is often one of the earliest signs of kidney disease. Normally, the kidneys filter out waste while retaining essential elements like proteins. When the kidneys are damaged, their filtering capability is compromised, allowing proteins to leak into the urine. Proteinuria is often detected through routine urine tests and can be a red flag for various kidney diseases, including chronic kidney disease and glomerulonephritis. Think of the kidneys as two high-quality sieves that are designed to keep valuable items (like proteins) while letting go of waste materials. If the sieve gets a tear or hole (kidney damage), it starts to lose some of the valuable items (proteins) along with the waste. This is a sign that the sieve is not working as it should, and it needs to be checked and repaired. Nurse Olivia should emphasize to her students the importance of early detection of proteinuria through regular urine tests, especially in high-risk populations like those with diabetes or hypertension. Early intervention can slow the progression of kidney disease and improve outcomes. Treatment often involves managing the underlying condition that is causing the kidney damage, such as controlling blood sugar levels in diabetic patients or managing blood pressure. Incorrect answer options: A) Excessive thirst and hunger. While excessive thirst and hunger are symptoms commonly associated with conditions like diabetes, they are not the most frequently observed early signs of kidney disease. B) Blood in the urine. Although blood in the urine can be a sign of kidney disease, it is not the most common early symptom. It can also be indicative of other conditions like urinary tract infections or kidney stones. D) Elevated blood pressure. High blood pressure can be both a cause and a consequence of kidney disease. However, it is not the most common early sign of kidney disease itself. It is often a comorbid condition that may exacerbate kidney issues. 15. Correct answer: D) Stress Incontinence. Stress incontinence is characterized by the involuntary loss of urine during physical activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing, sneezing, or lifting heavy objects. This type of incontinence is often caused by weakened pelvic floor muscles or a weakened urethral sphincter, which can occur due to factors like childbirth, aging, or surgery. Imagine the bladder as a water balloon held tightly by a hand (pelvic floor muscles and urethral sphincter). Normally, the hand can hold the balloon securely, even when it’s jostled. However, if the hand becomes weak (weakened pelvic floor muscles), it might let some water escape when extra force (like a cough or sneeze) is applied to the balloon. Nurse Ethan should consider recommending pelvic floor exercises, such as Kegels, to strengthen the muscles that help control urination. Lifestyle modifications like weight loss and avoiding bladder irritants like caffeine and alcohol may also help. In some cases, surgical interventions like sling procedures may be considered. Incorrect answer options: A) Reflex Incontinence. Reflex incontinence occurs when the bladder muscles contract involuntarily, often without any warning or urge to urinate. This is usually seen in conditions affecting the nervous system, such as spinal cord injuries. B) Overflow Incontinence. Overflow incontinence happens when the bladder becomes too full and urine overflows, often due to an obstruction or poor bladder contraction. This is not consistent with Mrs. Clark’s symptoms of leaking when coughing, sneezing, or lifting. C) Urge Incontinence. Urge incontinence is characterized by a sudden, intense urge to urinate, followed by an involuntary loss of urine. This is usually due to overactivity of the detrusor muscles in the bladder wall and is not what Mrs. Clark is experiencing. 16. Correct answer: B) Signs of hemorrhaging or excessive bleeding. After a prostatectomy, one of the most immediate and potentially life-threatening complications is hemorrhaging or excessive bleeding. The prostate is a highly vascular organ, and even with meticulous surgical technique, there is a risk of significant blood loss post-operatively. Immediate and priority assessment for signs of hemorrhaging, such as a rapid drop in blood pressure, increased heart rate, and decreased hemoglobin levels, is crucial. Think of the prostate as a busy traffic roundabout with many roads (blood vessels) leading into it. After construction work (the prostatectomy), it’s crucial to make sure all the roads are clear and secure. If not, you could have a major accident (hemorrhaging) that disrupts the flow of traffic (blood) and causes chaos (life-threatening situation). Nurse Amanda should closely monitor Mr. Johnson’s vital signs, particularly blood pressure and heart rate, as well as regularly check the surgical site and drainage for any signs of excessive bleeding. She should also keep emergency resuscitation equipment readily available. If signs of hemorrhaging are detected, immediate intervention, including possible surgical revision and blood transfusion, may be required. Incorrect answer options: A) The onset of deep vein thrombosis symptoms. While deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a concern in post-operative care, it is generally not as immediately life-threatening as hemorrhaging. Prophylactic measures like anticoagulants and compression stockings are usually employed to mitigate this risk. C) Early indications of pneumonia. While post-operative pneumonia is a concern, particularly in older patients, it is generally not as immediate a threat as hemorrhaging. Preventive measures like incentive spirometry can help reduce this risk. D) Symptoms of urine retention. Urine retention is a possible complication after a prostatectomy, but it is generally not as immediately life-threatening as hemorrhaging. Catheterization can usually manage this issue effectively. 17. Correct answer: D) Testing for prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing is currently one of the most commonly used and indicative diagnostic tests for detecting prostate cancer. Elevated levels of PSA in the blood can be an early sign of prostate cancer, although it’s worth noting that elevated PSA levels can also be due to other conditions like prostatitis or benign prostatic hyperplasia. PSA testing is often used in conjunction with other diagnostic methods like digital rectal examinations (DRE) and imaging tests for a more comprehensive diagnosis. Think of PSA testing as a smoke detector in a building. While it can’t tell you the exact location or size of the fire (cancer), it can alert you to the fact that something is wrong and further investigation is needed. Just like a smoke detector can go off for reasons other than a fire (like burnt toast), elevated PSA levels can be due to other factors, necessitating further tests for confirmation. Nurse William should emphasize to the men’s health group that while PSA testing is a valuable tool for early detection, it is not foolproof. Elevated PSA levels should be followed by additional diagnostic tests, such as a DRE and possibly a biopsy, to confirm the presence of cancer. It’s also important to discuss the risks and benefits of PSA testing with a healthcare provider, as it can sometimes lead to overdiagnosis and overtreatment. Incorrect answer options: A) Excretory urography as a diagnostic measure. Excretory urography is an imaging test that involves injecting dye into the bloodstream to visualize the urinary tract. While it can be used to detect abnormalities, it is not the most indicative test for prostate cancer. B) An in-depth digital rectal examination. While a digital rectal examination (DRE) is commonly used in conjunction with PSA testing, it is not as indicative on its own for detecting prostate cancer. A DRE can miss many cases that a PSA test might catch. C) The use of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). MRI is often used in later stages of diagnosis, especially before a biopsy or to stage a known cancer. However, it is not the primary screening test for prostate cancer. 18. Correct answer: A) “Despite following your insulin schedule, the risk of kidney damage remains a concern.” Diabetic nephropathy is a serious complication of diabetes that affects the kidneys. While managing blood sugar levels through insulin is crucial, it’s not the only factor that contributes to kidney health. High blood pressure, high cholesterol, and even the duration of diabetes can also contribute to kidney damage. Therefore, a comprehensive approach that includes blood sugar control, blood pressure management, and regular monitoring of kidney function is essential. Think of your kidneys as a water filtration system for a fish tank. Even if you feed the fish (manage blood sugar) at the right times, the filter can still get clogged (kidney damage) if the water quality (blood pressure, cholesterol) isn’t maintained. Just like you’d need to check the pH levels, clean the tank, and ensure the filter is working properly, you also need to manage other health factors to keep your kidneys in good shape. Nurse Emily should emphasize the importance of a multi-faceted approach to managing diabetic nephropathy. This includes not only strict adherence to insulin therapy but also lifestyle modifications like a balanced diet, regular exercise, and medications to control blood pressure and cholesterol levels. Regular check-ups to monitor kidney function, such as urine tests for protein and blood tests for creatinine, are also crucial. Incorrect answer options: B) “You should consult with your physician; statistics suggest your viewpoint may be too optimistic.” While consulting a physician is always advisable, this response doesn’t directly address the patient’s misconception and could be seen as dismissive. C) “Your statement would hold true if diabetes could solely be managed through insulin.” This answer could be misleading, as it implies that insulin alone could prevent kidney damage, which is not the case. D) “As long as your kidneys continue to produce urine, you have minimal concern.” This statement is incorrect and could give the patient a false sense of security. Kidney damage can occur even when urine production is normal. 19. Correct answer: C) Consume 8 to 10 eight-ounce glasses of water each day. Hydration is crucial in preventing the recurrence of urinary tract infections (UTIs), especially for someone who has just recovered from sepsis stemming from a UTI. Adequate water intake helps to dilute the urine and ensures that you urinate more frequently, allowing bacteria to be flushed from the urinary system before an infection can begin. Think of the urinary system as a garden hose. If you only trickle water through it, debris (in this case, bacteria) can easily build up. But if you keep a strong, steady flow of water (urine), it’s much harder for debris to accumulate. Just like you’d run water through a hose to clear out any blockages, drinking plenty of water helps to “flush out” the urinary system. Nurse Jennifer should emphasize the importance of hydration in her discharge instructions. She should also recommend that the patient monitor for signs of UTIs, such as painful urination, urgency, or cloudy urine, and to seek medical attention if these symptoms occur. Antibiotics may be prescribed for a UTI, and it’s crucial to complete the entire course of treatment, even if symptoms improve. Incorrect answer options: A) Refrain from using tampons. While tampons can be associated with Toxic Shock Syndrome, they are not directly related to UTIs or sepsis stemming from a UTI. B) Abstain from engaging in sexual activity. While sexual activity can sometimes contribute to UTIs, complete abstinence is generally not necessary. Instead, urinating before and after sexual activity can help prevent UTIs. D) Take cool baths to manage symptoms. Cool baths are not a recommended method for preventing UTIs. In fact, frequent bathing with soaps and bath oils can irritate the urethra and potentially contribute to UTIs. 20. Correct answer: D) “Expect your urine to possibly change to a bright orange color.” Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is not an antibiotic; it’s a urinary analgesic used for relieving symptoms like burning, pain, and discomfort associated with UTIs. One of its most notable side effects is that it can turn the urine a bright orange or red color. This is a harmless side effect but can be alarming if the patient is not forewarned. Think of Pyridium like a temporary paint job for a room that’s under renovation (your urinary system). The paint (Pyridium) doesn’t fix the underlying issue (the UTI), but it makes the room more comfortable to be in (relieves symptoms). The bright color (orange urine) is just a sign that the paint is doing its job, even though it might look surprising at first. Nurse Zachary should inform the patient that this color change is expected and not a cause for concern. He should also emphasize that Pyridium is not a cure for UTIs; it only alleviates symptoms. Therefore, if the patient is also prescribed an antibiotic for the UTI, it’s crucial to complete the full course of that medication as well. Incorrect answer options: A) “Administer this medication between your meals and at bedtime.” Phenazopyridine is usually taken after meals to reduce stomach upset, not between meals and at bedtime. B) “Avoid this drug if you have a penicillin allergy.” There is no known cross-reactivity between phenazopyridine and penicillin. This warning is not relevant for this medication. C) “You must complete this antibiotic course for a total of 7 days.” Phenazopyridine is not an antibiotic, so this statement is incorrect. It is used for symptom relief and is often taken for only a few days. 21. Correct answer: B) Elevated blood pressure, reduced urine output, and complaints of fatigue. Acute glomerulonephritis is an inflammatory condition affecting the glomeruli, the tiny filtering units of the kidneys. The hallmark symptoms include elevated blood pressure, reduced urine output (oliguria), and general feelings of fatigue or malaise. These symptoms occur because the inflamed glomeruli are less efficient at filtering waste and excess fluids, leading to fluid retention and increased blood pressure. Imagine the kidneys as a pair of coffee filters. When they’re working well, they let the liquid (urine) through while trapping the grounds (waste). If the filters become clogged or damaged (inflamed glomeruli), the flow of coffee (urine) slows down, and the pot (body) retains more liquid, leading to increased pressure in the system. Nurse Olivia should be alert to these symptoms as they are indicative of acute glomerulonephritis. Immediate intervention is crucial, as untreated glomerulonephritis can lead to severe complications such as kidney failure. Diagnostic tests, including urine tests to check for protein and blood, and blood tests to measure kidney function, are usually performed to confirm the diagnosis. Incorrect answer options: A) Symptoms of fever, chills, and pain in the right upper quadrant radiating to the back. These symptoms are more indicative of gallbladder issues or liver disease rather than acute glomerulonephritis. C) Complaints of back pain accompanied by nausea and vomiting. These symptoms could be indicative of a variety of conditions, including kidney stones or gastrointestinal issues, but they are not specific to acute glomerulonephritis. D) Symptoms of painful urination, frequent urination, and a sense of urgency. These symptoms are more commonly associated with a urinary tract infection (UTI) rather than acute glomerulonephritis. 22. Correct answer: A) Excess Fluid Volume. End-stage renal disease (ESRD) is a condition where the kidneys have lost most of their ability to function effectively. One of the primary roles of the kidneys is to filter waste and excess fluids, including electrolytes like sodium and potassium, from the blood. When the kidneys fail to perform this function adequately, it leads to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, most notably excess fluid volume. This can result in edema, hypertension, and even heart failure if not managed appropriately. Therefore, the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with ESRD should be “Excess Fluid Volume.” Think of the kidneys as a water purification system in a household. If the system breaks down, the water in the house will become contaminated and start to accumulate. Just like you’d prioritize fixing the purification system to prevent water-related issues in the house, in ESRD, the priority is to manage the excess fluid that the kidneys can no longer filter. Incorrect answer options: B) Experience of Pain. While pain management is essential in patient care, it is not the priority in ESRD. Uncontrolled pain can indeed affect the patient’s quality of life, but it does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk like fluid overload does. C) Deficit in Patient Knowledge. Educating the patient about their condition and its management is crucial but not the immediate priority. Lack of knowledge can lead to non-compliance and complications in the long run, but it is not as urgent as managing fluid volume. D) Intolerance to Physical Activity. Physical activity intolerance may be a concern for patients with ESRD due to fatigue and other symptoms. However, it is not the priority. Failing to manage excess fluid volume can lead to more severe complications, including cardiovascular issues, making it the most urgent concern. 23. Correct answer: B) Apply consistent pressure to the needle insertion site upon ceasing hemodialysis. An arteriovenous (AV) fistula is a surgically created connection between an artery and a vein, commonly in the arm, to facilitate hemodialysis. One of the primary concerns post-hemodialysis is the risk of bleeding from the needle insertion site. Applying consistent pressure to the site is crucial to promote hemostasis (cessation of bleeding) and prevent complications like hematoma formation or excessive blood loss. Therefore, this intervention should be a priority in the patient’s plan of care. Imagine the AV fistula as a garden hose that you’ve punctured to water your plants (akin to dialysis). Once you’re done watering, you’d want to seal that puncture tightly to prevent water from leaking out and causing a mess. Similarly, applying consistent pressure to the needle insertion site is like sealing that puncture to prevent blood loss. Incorrect answer options: A) Keep the left arm completely dry. While it’s essential to keep the AV fistula site clean, keeping the entire arm dry is not a priority intervention for a patient with an AV fistula undergoing hemodialysis. C) Elevate the left arm on an arm board for a minimum of 30 minutes. Elevating the arm is generally not recommended unless there is a specific reason, such as reducing edema. However, it is not a priority intervention for preventing complications related to the AV fistula. D) Maintain the head of the bed at a 45-degree elevation. While elevating the head of the bed may be beneficial for respiratory function, it is not directly related to the care of an AV fistula in a patient with ESRD undergoing hemodialysis. 24. Correct answer: D) Fluid Volume Deficit related to the inability to conserve water. The patient’s lab results indicate hypernatremia (elevated sodium levels) and elevated osmolarity, both of which are signs of dehydration or fluid volume deficit. In pyelonephritis, especially when complicated by septicemia, the body is in a hypermetabolic state, which can exacerbate fluid loss. The frequent urination, possibly due to recurrent UTIs, also contributes to fluid loss. The inability to conserve water in this situation makes “Fluid Volume Deficit related to the inability to conserve water” the priority nursing diagnosis. Imagine your body as a water tank that needs to maintain a certain water level for all its functions. Now, think of pyelonephritis and septicemia as holes in the tank, causing water to leak out. At the same time, the recurrent UTIs are like someone continuously drawing water from the tank for use. If you don’t address the decreasing water level (fluid volume deficit), the tank will eventually run dry, causing all the systems relying on it to malfunction. In this patient’s case, the elevated sodium and osmolarity levels are like warning alarms indicating that the water level in the tank is critically low. Addressing this issue should be the priority to prevent further complications, such as kidney failure, shock, or even death. Incorrect answer options: A) Altered Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements related to the catabolic effects of insulin deficiency. While the patient has lost weight and has elevated glucose levels, these are not the most immediate concerns. The glucose level of 127 mg/dl is elevated but not critically high. Insulin deficiency is not indicated, and there’s no immediate life-threatening situation arising from this condition as there is with fluid volume deficit. B) Altered Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements related to a hypermetabolic state. The patient is indeed in a hypermetabolic state due to pyelonephritis and suspected septicemia. However, the immediate life-threatening issue is the fluid volume deficit indicated by the lab results. While nutrition is important, it is not the priority in this acute situation. C) Fluid Volume Deficit related to osmotic diuresis triggered by hyponatremia. This option is incorrect because the patient actually has hypernatremia (high sodium levels), not hyponatremia (low sodium levels). Osmotic diuresis would typically be associated with low sodium levels, which is not the case here. The lab results clearly indicate a fluid volume deficit related to the inability to conserve water, making this option incorrect. 25. Correct answer: B) A daily urine output that doubles, reaching 4 to 5 liters per day. Acute renal failure, also known as acute kidney injury (AKI), typically progresses through three phases: oliguric, diuretic, and recovery. The second phase is the diuretic phase, characterized by a sudden increase in urine output. This occurs as the kidneys start to recover but are not yet fully capable of concentrating urine. As a result, the kidneys excrete a large volume of dilute urine, often reaching 4 to 5 liters per day. This phase can be misleading because, while it may seem like kidney function is returning to normal due to the increased urine output, the kidneys are still not effectively filtering waste products from the blood. Think of the kidneys as a damaged dam. Initially, the dam holds back water (urine), letting very little through (oliguric phase). As repairs begin, the floodgates suddenly open wide, releasing a large volume of water (diuretic phase). However, the dam’s control mechanisms are not yet fully functional, so it can’t properly regulate the flow. This is similar to the kidneys in the diuretic phase: they release a lot of urine but can’t concentrate it or effectively remove waste from the blood. The diuretic phase is a critical period that requires careful monitoring. While the increased urine output may seem like a positive sign, it can lead to severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances if not managed appropriately. Therefore, fluid and electrolyte replacement is often necessary during this phase to prevent further complications. Incorrect answer options: A) Urine production is less than 400 ml per day. This is indicative of the oliguric phase, which is the first phase of acute renal failure. In this phase, the kidneys are severely compromised and produce very little urine, leading to fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances. C) Stabilization of kidney function. This would indicate the recovery phase, which is the third and final stage of acute renal failure. In this phase, kidney function gradually returns to normal, and urine output stabilizes. However, some patients may have residual kidney damage even after recovery. D) A daily urine output of less than 100 ml. This extreme reduction in urine output is more indicative of the oliguric phase or possibly a progression to anuric renal failure, which is a severe form of acute renal failure where urine output is almost or completely absent. 26. Correct answer: C) A 50-year-old postmenopausal woman. Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are more common in women than in men, and the risk increases with age, especially after menopause. Postmenopausal women are at a higher risk due to hormonal changes that affect the urinary tract, making it more susceptible to infection. Additionally, the decrease in estrogen levels can lead to changes in the urinary tract that make it easier for bacteria to invade and cause an infection. Therefore, among the given options, a 50-year-old postmenopausal woman would be at the greatest risk for developing a UTI. Imagine your urinary tract as a well-fortified castle. In younger years, the castle has strong walls and a vigilant guard (estrogen and a robust immune system) that keep invaders (bacteria) at bay. However, after menopause, it’s as if some of the guards have retired and the walls have weakened. This makes it easier for invaders to breach the defenses and take over the castle. In the same way, the postmenopausal changes in a woman’s body make it easier for bacteria to cause a UTI. Given that UTIs can lead to more severe complications like kidney infections if not treated promptly, it’s crucial to monitor high-risk patients closely. This includes regular urine tests and possibly prophylactic antibiotics for those who have recurrent UTIs. Incorrect answer options: A) A 28-year-old individual diagnosed with angina. Angina primarily affects the cardiovascular system and does not have a direct impact on the urinary tract. While any illness can potentially make someone more susceptible to infections, angina itself does not significantly increase the risk of developing a UTI compared to a postmenopausal woman. B) A 35-year-old woman who has a fractured wrist. A fractured wrist is an orthopedic issue and does not inherently increase the risk of developing a UTI. While immobilization and potential hospitalization could pose some risk, it is not as significant as the hormonal and anatomical changes associated with menopause. D) A 20-year-old woman diagnosed with asthma. Asthma is a respiratory condition and does not directly affect the urinary tract. While medications like corticosteroids used for asthma treatment can weaken the immune system, the risk is not as high as that for a postmenopausal woman. 27. Correct answer: D) Measuring blood pressure on the arm with the arteriovenous fistula can lead to clot formation. An arteriovenous (AV) fistula is a surgically created connection between an artery and a vein to facilitate hemodialysis. It’s crucial to avoid any form of pressure or constriction on the arm with the AV fistula, as this can lead to clot formation, which would compromise the fistula’s function. Measuring blood pressure on the arm with the AV fistula can exert pressure on the blood vessels, increasing the risk of clot formation and potentially leading to fistula failure. Think of the AV fistula as a newly constructed tunnel designed to handle a high volume of traffic (blood flow). If you were to partially block this tunnel (by measuring blood pressure on that arm), it would cause a traffic jam (clot formation), making the tunnel unusable. Just as you’d want to keep the tunnel clear for smooth traffic flow, you’d want to avoid any actions that could obstruct the blood flow through the AV fistula. Nurse Emily should educate the patient and other healthcare providers about this crucial aspect to ensure the longevity and functionality of the AV fistula. She should also place a sign or band on the arm to indicate that no blood pressure measurements, injections, or blood draws should be performed on that arm. Incorrect answer options: A) Auscultating the fistula with a stethoscope is not advised. This statement is incorrect. Auscultating the AV fistula is actually recommended to assess for a bruit, which is a swishing sound indicating that the fistula is patent and functioning well. B) The patient should not experience pain during the initiation of dialysis. While the goal is to minimize discomfort, some patients do experience pain or discomfort during the needle insertion for dialysis. This does not necessarily indicate a problem with the AV fistula but should be assessed and managed appropriately. C) The patient generally feels at their best immediately following dialysis treatment. This is not always true. While dialysis does remove waste products and excess fluid, it can also be physically exhausting for some patients, leading to symptoms like fatigue or low blood pressure immediately after treatment. 28. Correct answer: C) A low-protein diet with a physician-prescribed amount of water intake. Patients with diabetes mellitus who are also undergoing hemodialysis due to renal failure have unique dietary needs. A low-protein diet is generally recommended to reduce the workload on the kidneys, which are already compromised. Additionally, water intake should be carefully managed to prevent fluid overload, a common complication in patients undergoing hemodialysis. Since the kidneys are not effectively filtering waste and excess fluids, a physician-prescribed amount of water intake is crucial to maintain fluid balance without overloading the cardiovascular system. Imagine your kidneys as a pair of overworked filters in a fish tank. If you keep adding more debris (protein waste) and water (fluids) into the tank, the filters will struggle even more to keep the water clean. Just like you’d reduce the amount of debris and control the water level to help the filters, a low-protein diet and physician-prescribed water intake help ease the burden on your already compromised kidneys. Given the patient’s diabetes, it’s also essential to monitor carbohydrate intake to manage blood sugar levels. The dietary plan should be a collaborative effort involving a physician, dietitian, and the nursing team to ensure it meets the patient’s needs while considering the complexities of both diabetes and renal failure. Incorrect answer options: A) A low-protein diet with no restrictions on water intake. While a low-protein diet is beneficial, having no restrictions on water intake can lead to fluid overload, exacerbating the patient’s condition and potentially leading to complications like heart failure. B) No dietary restrictions whatsoever. This is not advisable for a patient with both diabetes and renal failure. Unrestricted dietary intake can lead to uncontrolled blood sugar levels and further kidney damage, making the situation worse. D) A diet devoid of protein, along with the use of a salt substitute. Completely eliminating protein is not recommended, as the body needs some protein for essential functions. Additionally, many salt substitutes contain potassium, which can be dangerous for patients with renal failure as their kidneys may not effectively excrete excess potassium, leading to hyperkalemia. 29. Correct answer: C) Disequilibrium Syndrome. The symptoms described—headache, elevated blood pressure, restlessness, mental confusion, nausea, and vomiting—are indicative of Disequilibrium Syndrome. This condition can occur during or after the first few hemodialysis sessions and is caused by a rapid decrease in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels. The rapid removal of waste products from the blood can create an osmotic imbalance between the blood and the brain, leading to cerebral edema and the symptoms observed. Imagine your blood as a saltwater fish tank that has become too dirty (high levels of waste products). Hemodialysis is like a quick and thorough cleaning of the tank. However, if you clean it too quickly, the fish (your brain cells) can go into shock due to the sudden change in water conditions. Just like you’d want to clean the tank gradually to avoid shocking the fish, hemodialysis should ideally remove waste products at a rate that doesn’t shock the system. Nurse Jake should immediately notify the healthcare provider and may need to slow down or temporarily halt the dialysis treatment. Medications to control symptoms and supportive care may also be required. Monitoring vital signs and neurological status will be crucial in managing this condition. Incorrect answer options: A) Peritonitis. Peritonitis is an inflammation of the peritoneum, often caused by bacterial infection. It is more commonly associated with peritoneal dialysis and would not typically present with the neurological symptoms described. B) Hypervolemia. Hypervolemia, or fluid overload, could potentially cause elevated blood pressure and headaches, but it would not explain the mental confusion, nausea, and vomiting experienced by the patient. D) Respiratory Distress. Respiratory distress would primarily manifest with symptoms related to breathing difficulties, such as shortness of breath, rapid breathing, and low oxygen levels, which are not the symptoms described in this scenario. 30. Correct answer: D) Establish designated times for bladder emptying. For a patient with a neurogenic bladder, the most critical action in bladder training is to establish designated times for bladder emptying. A neurogenic bladder is a condition where the patient has lost voluntary control over urination due to a neurological disorder or damage. Scheduled voiding or timed voiding is often the cornerstone of managing this condition. It helps in preventing overdistension of the bladder, reduces the risk of urinary tract infections, and can improve the patient’s quality of life by giving them more control over their bladder function. Think of the bladder as a small water balloon that has a leak (neurogenic bladder). If you don’t have a plan to empty the water at regular intervals, the balloon will either become too full and burst (bladder overdistension) or leak unpredictably (incontinence). By setting a timer to remind you to empty the balloon at designated times, you can manage the situation more effectively and prevent unwanted incidents. Nurse Maya should work closely with the healthcare team, including urologists and physiotherapists, to develop an individualized bladder training program for the patient. This program may also include other interventions like pelvic floor exercises or medications, but the scheduled voiding remains the most critical aspect for immediate care. Incorrect answer options: A) Promote the practice of Kegel exercises. While Kegel exercises can be beneficial for strengthening the pelvic floor muscles, they may not be effective for a neurogenic bladder where the issue is neurological. The patient may not have the voluntary control needed to perform these exercises effectively. B) Advocate for increased fluid intake. Increased fluid intake without a plan for regular voiding could exacerbate the problem by increasing the frequency of involuntary voiding episodes. Fluid intake should be carefully managed in consultation with healthcare providers. C) Suggest the continued use of an indwelling urinary catheter. While an indwelling urinary catheter may be necessary in some cases, long-term use can lead to complications like urinary tract infections and bladder stones. The goal of rehabilitation is to improve function and quality of life, and reliance on a catheter doesn’t align with this objective. 31. Correct answer: B) Protein sources. For a patient with both diabetes and chronic renal failure, reducing protein intake is often a key dietary modification. High protein intake can exacerbate kidney dysfunction by increasing the glomerular filtration rate and contributing to further renal damage. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys are already compromised in their ability to filter waste products, including those generated from protein metabolism. Therefore, a low-protein diet is generally recommended to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Imagine your kidneys as two overworked employees in a recycling facility (your body). Normally, they can handle sorting various types of waste (sugars, proteins, etc.), but now they’re struggling. If you keep sending more complicated items (proteins) for them to sort, they’ll get overwhelmed and their performance will decline even further. By reducing the amount of complicated waste (protein), you’re giving them a chance to catch up and not get worse. Nurse Alex should collaborate with a dietitian to create a balanced meal plan that meets the patient’s nutritional needs while minimizing renal strain. This is particularly challenging given the patient’s diabetic condition, which already necessitates careful dietary planning. The goal is to find a balance that manages both conditions without compromising the patient’s overall health. Incorrect answer options: A) Dietary fats. While it’s important to manage fat intake, especially in a diabetic patient, fats do not have a direct impact on renal function in the way that proteins do. Therefore, they are not the primary concern in this specific context of chronic renal failure. C) Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C). While excessive Vitamin C can contribute to renal stone formation, it’s not the primary concern for someone with chronic renal failure and diabetes. The focus should be on reducing protein to alleviate kidney workload. D) Carbohydrate intake. While managing carbohydrate intake is crucial for diabetes control, it’s not the primary concern when it comes to chronic renal failure. Carbohydrates don’t have the same impact on renal function as proteins do. 32. Correct answer: C) Palpate along the entire length of the fistula for the presence of a thrill. The best method to assess the patency of an arteriovenous (AV) fistula is by palpating along its entire length for the presence of a thrill, which is a continuous, low-frequency vibration felt over the fistula. The thrill is a good indicator that blood is flowing adequately through the fistula, which is essential for successful hemodialysis. A lack of thrill could indicate a problem such as clot formation or stenosis, which would require immediate medical attention. Imagine the AV fistula as a water pipe in your home. If the water is flowing well, you’ll hear a consistent, low hum (thrill) when you touch the pipe. If something is blocking the flow, like a clot or narrowing (stenosis), the hum will be absent or irregular. Just as you’d check the pipe by feeling it, Nurse Emily should palpate the AV fistula to ensure it’s working as it should. Regular assessment of the AV fistula is crucial for patients undergoing hemodialysis. Nurse Emily should educate the patient on how to self-assess the thrill to catch any potential issues early. She should also document her findings and communicate any concerns to the healthcare team for prompt intervention. Incorrect answer options: A) Aspirate blood from the fistula using a needle and syringe. This method is invasive and poses a risk of introducing infection or causing damage to the fistula. It is not the recommended way to check for patency. B) Compress the fistula and observe the rate of refilling upon release. While this method might provide some information, it is not as reliable as palpating for a thrill. It could also potentially dislodge a clot, leading to complications. D) Evaluate capillary refill time in the nail beds of the same arm. While capillary refill time can provide some information about peripheral circulation, it is not a specific or reliable method for assessing the patency of an AV fistula. 33. Correct answer: C) Enhanced loss of calcium from the skeletal system. In paraplegic patients, the lack of weight-bearing activities can lead to demineralization of the bones, resulting in an enhanced loss of calcium into the bloodstream. This excess calcium is then filtered by the kidneys, increasing the risk of calcium-based renal calculi (kidney stones). The immobility associated with paraplegia can also lead to urinary stasis, which is another risk factor for stone formation. Think of the skeletal system as a calcium “bank” and the kidneys as the “cashiers” that handle calcium transactions. In a paraplegic patient, it’s as if there’s a sudden withdrawal of a large amount of calcium “cash” from the bank due to the lack of weight-bearing activities. The cashiers (kidneys) then have to handle this sudden influx, and they may not be equipped to do so efficiently, leading to a “pile-up” or formation of kidney stones. Nurse Sarah should consider implementing strategies to manage and reduce the risk of further stone formation. This could include medications to control calcium levels, dietary modifications, and, if possible, activities that can help minimize bone demineralization. Regular monitoring of calcium levels and renal function will also be essential in managing this patient’s condition. Incorrect answer options: A) Elevated fluid consumption. Increased fluid intake is generally considered a preventive measure against the formation of renal calculi, as it helps dilute the urine and reduce the concentration of stone-forming substances. Therefore, elevated fluid consumption is unlikely to be a contributing factor in this case. B) Reduced renal function. While reduced renal function can contribute to the formation of renal calculi, it is not specifically related to the patient’s paraplegic condition. Reduced renal function is more commonly associated with other medical conditions like chronic kidney disease. D) Lowered dietary calcium intake. Contrary to popular belief, a low-calcium diet is not generally a risk factor for calcium-based renal calculi. In fact, too little calcium can lead to increased absorption of oxalate, another component of some types of kidney stones. 34. Correct answer: B) Excess fluid volume. For a patient in end-stage renal disease (ESRD), the priority nursing diagnosis is often “Excess Fluid Volume.” The kidneys play a crucial role in fluid balance, and when they are severely compromised, as in ESRD, they can’t effectively remove excess fluid from the body. This can lead to a host of problems, including hypertension, edema, and heart failure, making it a critical issue that needs immediate attention. Imagine your kidneys as two sponges that soak up excess water (fluid) from a puddle (your body). Now, if these sponges are worn out and can’t soak up water effectively, the puddle will start to overflow, affecting everything around it. In the same way, when kidneys can’t remove excess fluid, it starts to “overflow,” leading to swelling, high blood pressure, and even affecting heart function. Nurse John should focus on monitoring the patient’s fluid intake and output, weight, and signs of fluid overload like edema and elevated blood pressure. Interventions may include restricting fluid and sodium intake, administering diuretics as ordered, and closely monitoring hemodialysis to ensure effective removal of excess fluid. Coordination with other healthcare providers for medication management and dialysis scheduling will also be essential. Incorrect answer options: A) Nutritional imbalance: insufficient dietary intake. While nutritional imbalance is a concern in ESRD, it is not the immediate priority. Malnutrition can exacerbate the condition but does not pose the same immediate risks as fluid overload. C) Elevated risk for physical harm. While patients with ESRD are at increased risk for falls and other physical harm due to weakness and imbalance, this is not the immediate priority when compared to the life-threatening complications of fluid overload. D) Reduced tolerance for physical activity. Although physical activity tolerance is reduced in ESRD, it is not the immediate concern. The focus should be on managing life-threatening issues first, such as fluid overload, before addressing quality of life concerns like physical activity. 35. Correct answer: B) Review the most recent laboratory results for the patient’s potassium level. In a patient with end-stage renal disease (ESRD), frequent Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVCs) are often a sign of hyperkalemia, or elevated potassium levels. The kidneys are primarily responsible for regulating potassium levels, and in ESRD, this function is compromised. Elevated potassium levels can have severe cardiac implications, including life-threatening arrhythmias. Therefore, the priority nursing intervention would be to review the most recent laboratory results for the patient’s potassium level to confirm or rule out hyperkalemia as the cause of the PVCs. Think of potassium as the “electrician” of the heart, responsible for maintaining the electrical system that keeps the heart beating regularly. In ESRD, the “electrician” starts to slack off because the kidneys, which usually supervise this “electrician,” are not working well. This can lead to electrical “short-circuits” in the heart, manifesting as PVCs on the cardiac monitor. After reviewing the potassium levels, Nurse Emily should immediately inform the healthcare provider, especially if hyperkalemia is confirmed. Treatment may involve medications to lower potassium levels, adjustments in dialysis, or even emergency interventions to stabilize the cardiac rhythm. Continuous cardiac monitoring is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the interventions and to detect any further arrhythmias. Incorrect answer options: A) Administer intravenous lidocaine (Xylocaine) to the patient. Administering lidocaine without first identifying the underlying cause of the PVCs could be risky. Lidocaine is generally not the first-line treatment for PVCs due to hyperkalemia, which is a common issue in ESRD. C) Ready the equipment for potential defibrillation of the patient. While it’s important to be prepared for emergency interventions, the priority is to identify the underlying cause of the PVCs. Defibrillation is a last-resort measure and may not address the root issue, especially if it’s related to electrolyte imbalance. D) Contact the healthcare provider immediately. While contacting the healthcare provider is important, it should be done after reviewing the potassium levels. The healthcare provider will likely ask for this information to make an informed decision on the next steps for treatment. 36. Correct answer: B) At a heightened risk for cancer development because of immunosuppressive therapy with cyclosporine (Neoral). Patients who have received a kidney transplant are often on immunosuppressive medications like cyclosporine (Neoral) to prevent organ rejection. While these medications are effective in preventing the immune system from attacking the new kidney, they also suppress the body’s natural ability to fight off cancer cells. This makes transplant recipients more susceptible to developing various types of cancer, including breast cancer. Think of the immune system as a vigilant security guard that keeps an eye on every visitor (cell) entering a building (the body). When a new tenant (transplanted kidney) moves in, the security guard is given specific instructions (immunosuppressive medications) to not be too harsh on this new tenant. However, these instructions also make the guard less attentive to other potential threats, like burglars (cancer cells), increasing the risk of a break-in (cancer). Given the patient’s report of a lump in her breast and her status as a transplant recipient on immunosuppressive therapy, Nurse Sarah should consider this a high-priority concern. Immediate diagnostic tests, such as a mammogram or biopsy, should be recommended, and the healthcare provider should be informed promptly for further evaluation and management. Incorrect answer options: A) At a lower likelihood for developing cancer, thus the lump is probably non-malignant. This statement is incorrect. Transplant recipients are at a higher risk for developing cancer due to immunosuppressive therapy, not a lower risk. C) More prone to tumor formation directly due to the kidney transplant. While it’s true that transplant recipients are at a higher risk for cancer, it’s not the kidney transplant itself that increases this risk but rather the immunosuppressive medications used to prevent organ rejection. D) Overwhelmed with anxiety post the life-altering kidney transplant experience. While psychological factors like anxiety could be present after a significant medical procedure like a kidney transplant, they are not directly related to the increased risk of developing cancer. The primary concern here is the immunosuppressive therapy. 37. Correct answer: B) Maintain a normal body temperature and have cultures that show no infection. For a patient who has recently undergone a kidney transplant and is at risk for infection, the most appropriate goal would be to maintain a normal body temperature and have cultures that show no signs of infection. This goal directly addresses the nursing diagnosis of “risk for infection” and provides measurable outcomes, such as body temperature and culture results, to evaluate the effectiveness of the nursing interventions. Imagine your body as a well-fortified castle. After a kidney transplant, one of the castle walls (your immune system) is intentionally weakened (due to immunosuppressive medications) to allow a new ally (the transplanted kidney) to enter. Now, the castle is more vulnerable to invasions (infections). The guards (healthcare providers) must be extra vigilant, regularly checking for signs of invaders (infections) like unusual movements (fever) or suspicious characters (bacteria in cultures). Nurse James should focus on implementing interventions that minimize the risk of infection. This could include educating the patient on the importance of hand hygiene, monitoring for signs of infection like fever or increased WBC count, and ensuring that prophylactic antibiotics are administered as ordered. Regular cultures should be taken to monitor for any bacterial growth, and any signs of infection should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. Incorrect answer options: A) Resume usual fluid consumption within a 48 to 72-hour timeframe. While fluid balance is important, especially post-surgery, it does not directly address the nursing diagnosis of “risk for infection.” Fluid consumption is more related to other nursing diagnoses like “fluid volume imbalance.” C) Work toward ceasing the use of cyclosporine (Neoral) as expediently as safe. Ceasing the use of cyclosporine is not advisable as it is essential for preventing organ rejection. This goal does not directly address the nursing diagnosis of “risk for infection.” D) Return to regular employment within a period of 2 to 3 weeks post-surgery. While returning to regular activities is an important long-term goal, it does not directly address the immediate concern of “risk for infection.” The focus should be on preventing infection in the immediate postoperative period. 38. Correct answer: A) Elevated body temperature, an increase in weight, and reduced urine production. Elevated body temperature, an increase in weight, and reduced urine production are classic signs of kidney transplant rejection. Elevated body temperature indicates an inflammatory response, which could be the body’s way of “fighting” the new kidney. Weight gain may be indicative of fluid retention, which could be a result of the kidney’s inability to filter fluids properly. Reduced urine production is a direct sign that the transplanted kidney is not functioning as it should. Imagine the transplanted kidney as a new employee in a company (your body). If the existing team (your immune system) doesn’t accept the new employee, there will be conflicts (rejection). The HR department (healthcare providers) will notice signs like decreased productivity (reduced urine production), increased tension (elevated body temperature), and resource mismanagement (weight gain due to fluid retention). In this situation, immediate intervention is crucial. The healthcare provider should be notified, and diagnostic tests, such as blood tests and possibly a kidney biopsy, may be ordered to confirm rejection. Treatment may involve adjusting immunosuppressive medications or other therapies to try to save the transplanted kidney. Incorrect answer options: B) Reduced urine production accompanied by low blood pressure. While reduced urine production is a concern, low blood pressure is not typically associated with kidney transplant rejection. Low blood pressure could be indicative of other issues, such as sepsis or medication side effects. C) Discomfort at the surgical site, overall feeling of weakness, and signs of depression. While discomfort at the surgical site could be a concern, feelings of weakness and depression are not specific indicators of kidney transplant rejection. These symptoms could be related to the surgical recovery process or other medical conditions. D) Discomfort at the surgical site, overall malaise, and low blood pressure. Again, while discomfort at the surgical site and malaise could be concerning, low blood pressure is not a typical sign of kidney transplant rejection. These symptoms could be indicative of other medical issues. 39. Correct answer: A) Oliguria. Oliguria, or the production of an abnormally small amount of urine, is a classic early sign of acute renal failure. In the context of a patient who has just undergone repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm, oliguria could indicate that the kidneys are not receiving adequate blood flow or that they have been damaged during surgery. Either way, it’s a red flag that should prompt immediate intervention. Think of the kidneys as two water treatment plants that filter waste from the water (blood) and produce clean water (urine). After a major construction project like the repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm, there might be a disruption in the water supply to these plants. If you notice that the plants are producing less clean water (urine) than usual, it’s a sign that something is wrong, and you need to investigate immediately. Nurse Karen should promptly notify the healthcare provider and prepare for possible diagnostic tests like blood tests and renal scans. Immediate intervention may include fluid resuscitation, medications to improve renal blood flow, or even renal replacement therapy like dialysis, depending on the severity of the renal failure. Incorrect answer options: B) Nausea and vomiting. While nausea and vomiting can be symptoms of renal failure, they are not specific and could be related to anesthesia, medications, or other postoperative complications. They should not be the primary indicators for suspecting acute renal failure in this context. C) Complete absence of urine. Complete absence of urine, or anuria, is a late and severe sign of renal failure. By the time this symptom appears, the kidneys may have already sustained significant damage, making it less likely for interventions to be effective. D) Frequent bowel movements. Frequent bowel movements are not typically associated with acute renal failure. They could be indicative of other gastrointestinal issues but are not a sign of renal dysfunction in this context. 40. Correct answer: C) Excessive fluid volume in the body. In the context of acute renal failure, the most common cause of hypertension (elevated blood pressure) is excessive fluid volume in the body. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating fluid balance by filtering excess fluid and waste products from the blood. When the kidneys fail to function properly, they are unable to excrete excess fluid, leading to fluid overload and subsequently elevated blood pressure. Imagine the circulatory system as a water pipe system in a house. The kidneys act like a drainage system that helps to remove excess water. If the drainage system (kidneys) fails, water starts to accumulate in the pipes (blood vessels), increasing the pressure inside them. This is similar to how excessive fluid volume in the body leads to elevated blood pressure. Nurse Anthony should focus on interventions to manage fluid overload, such as administering diuretics as prescribed, monitoring fluid intake and output, and regularly assessing the patient’s weight and blood pressure. Close communication with the healthcare provider is essential for adjusting treatment plans as needed. Incorrect answer options: A) Low levels of red blood cells. Low levels of red blood cells, or anemia, can actually lead to low blood pressure rather than hypertension. Anemia reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, but it does not directly contribute to fluid overload, which is the primary cause of hypertension in acute renal failure. B) Fluid accumulation in the lungs. While fluid accumulation in the lungs (pulmonary edema) is a serious complication that can occur in acute renal failure, it is more of a consequence of fluid overload rather than a direct cause of hypertension. D) Insufficient fluid volume in the body. Insufficient fluid volume, or hypovolemia, would more likely lead to hypotension (low blood pressure) rather than hypertension. In the context of acute renal failure, the problem is usually too much fluid, not too little. 41. Correct answer: D) Assess the patient’s circulatory status and vital signs. In a postoperative setting, a low urine output like 120ml over six hours is concerning and could indicate inadequate renal perfusion or the onset of acute kidney injury. The priority intervention is to assess the patient’s circulatory status and vital signs. This will provide valuable information about the patient’s overall hemodynamic stability and could offer clues as to why the urine output is low. Imagine you’re a detective (Nurse Olivia) and you come across a clue (low urine output). Before jumping to conclusions or taking drastic actions, you would first gather more evidence (assess vital signs and circulatory status) to understand the situation better. Just like a detective wouldn’t arrest someone based on a single clue, a nurse shouldn’t initiate treatments like fluid boluses or catheter irrigation without a comprehensive assessment. After assessing the patient’s circulatory status and vital signs, Nurse Olivia should promptly inform the healthcare provider about the low urine output and other findings. Depending on the assessment, further interventions such as diagnostic tests or fluid resuscitation may be ordered. Incorrect answer options: A) Irrigate the urinary catheter with sterile saline or water. Irrigating the urinary catheter without a healthcare provider’s order could be risky and may not address the underlying issue of low urine output. It’s essential to first assess the patient’s overall condition. B) Position the patient for shock management and alert the surgical team. While low urine output can be a sign of shock, positioning the patient for shock management without first assessing the circulatory status and vital signs could be premature and may not be the most appropriate initial intervention. C) Administer a 500ml bolus of isotonic saline solution. Administering a fluid bolus without a healthcare provider’s order and without first assessing the patient’s circulatory status could exacerbate the situation, especially if the low urine output is due to fluid overload or heart failure. 42. Correct answer: B) Postpone the catheterization and alert the physician. The presence of blood at the opening of the urethra (urethral meatus) is a red flag that could indicate a urethral injury. Inserting a catheter in the presence of a potential urethral injury could exacerbate the injury and lead to severe complications, including further bleeding and infection. Think of the urethra as a tunnel and the catheter as a car that needs to pass through it. If you see signs of a potential collapse or damage at the entrance of the tunnel (blood at the urethral meatus), you wouldn’t proceed to drive the car (insert the catheter) through it without first alerting the authorities (physician) and assessing the situation. Nurse William should immediately alert the physician about the finding and await further instructions. Alternative methods of urinary drainage, such as a suprapubic catheter, may be considered depending on the severity of the injury and the patient’s overall condition. Incorrect answer options: A) Analyze the discharge for hidden blood prior to inserting the catheter. Analyzing the discharge for hidden blood would not negate the risk of exacerbating a potential urethral injury by inserting a catheter. The priority is to alert the physician. C) Thoroughly rinse and clean the urethral opening before proceeding with catheterization. Cleaning the urethral opening would not address the underlying issue of potential urethral injury. Inserting a catheter could still worsen the injury. D) Generously apply lubrication to the catheter before insertion. While lubrication is generally important for catheter insertion, it would not mitigate the risk of exacerbating a urethral injury in this case. The priority is to consult the physician. 43. Correct answer: B) Complete absence of protein in the urine. Nephritic syndrome is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli, leading to hematuria, hypertension, and some degree of proteinuria. While proteinuria in nephritic syndrome is generally less severe than in nephrotic syndrome, its complete absence in the urine would be a strong positive indicator of recovery. This suggests that the glomerular filtration barrier has been restored, allowing the kidneys to properly filter blood without losing essential proteins. Think of the kidneys as a coffee filter. Normally, the filter (glomeruli) allows only water and waste to pass through, keeping the coffee grounds (proteins) in. When the filter is damaged, some of the coffee grounds escape into the coffee (urine). If you find that your coffee is clear again, it’s a good sign that the filter is working as it should, just like the absence of protein in the urine indicates that the kidneys are recovering. Nurse Jane should continue to monitor other clinical parameters, such as blood pressure and serum creatinine levels, to get a comprehensive view of the patient’s renal function. However, the absence of protein in the urine is a significant milestone in the patient’s path to recovery and should be celebrated as such. Incorrect answer options: A) Decreased levels of serum albumin. Decreased levels of serum albumin would actually be a negative indicator, suggesting that protein is still being lost in the urine, which could lead to complications like edema. C) Elevated levels of lipids in the blood serum. Elevated lipid levels are not a positive indicator of recovery in nephritic syndrome. In fact, they could signify metabolic complications and are more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome. D) An increase in overall body weight. An increase in body weight, especially if sudden, could indicate fluid retention, which is not a positive sign in nephritic syndrome. It could suggest worsening renal function and would require immediate medical evaluation. 44. Correct answer: B) In prerenal failure, administering an intravenous infusion of isotonic saline enhances urine production. Prerenal failure is often caused by reduced blood flow to the kidneys, usually due to dehydration, hypovolemia, or heart failure. The kidneys themselves are not damaged in prerenal failure; they are simply not receiving enough blood to filter properly. Administering an intravenous infusion of isotonic saline can quickly restore blood volume and improve renal perfusion, thereby enhancing urine production and potentially reversing the condition. Imagine the kidneys as a water mill that needs a certain amount of water flow to turn its wheel and grind grain (filter blood). If the river (blood flow) leading to the mill is low, the wheel won’t turn efficiently. Adding more water to the river (administering isotonic saline) will help the wheel turn better, grinding more grain (producing more urine). Nurse Ethan should understand that prerenal failure is often reversible if the underlying cause is promptly addressed. This is in contrast to intrinsic renal failure, where the kidney tissue itself is damaged, and treatment is more complex. Incorrect answer options: A) In prerenal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels can be lowered through hemodialysis. Hemodialysis can lower BUN levels in both prerenal and renal failure. It does not specifically distinguish prerenal failure from renal failure in terms of treatment responsiveness. C) In prerenal failure, diuretics like furosemide (Lasix) are less effective in eliciting a response. Diuretics may be less effective in both prerenal and renal failure if the kidneys are not adequately perfused. This does not specifically distinguish prerenal failure. D) In prerenal failure, vasoactive agents such as dopamine (Intropin) elevate blood pressure levels. Vasoactive agents can elevate blood pressure in both prerenal and renal failure and do not specifically distinguish prerenal failure in terms of treatment responsiveness. 45. Correct answer: D) The patient needs to have stable hemodynamic parameters. Continuous Peritoneal Dialysis (CPD) is often considered for patients who have stable hemodynamic parameters. Unlike hemodialysis, which can cause rapid fluid and electrolyte shifts that may destabilize a patient’s cardiovascular status, CPD is generally gentler on the circulatory system. However, it’s crucial that the patient has stable hemodynamics to begin with, as any form of dialysis will still have some impact on fluid and electrolyte balance. Imagine your circulatory system as a well-balanced aquarium. If the water conditions (hemodynamics) are stable, you can introduce new fish (dialysis) without causing too much disruption. But if the water is already unstable, adding new elements could lead to chaos. Similarly, starting CPD in a patient with unstable hemodynamics could exacerbate their condition. Nurse Isabella should assess the patient’s cardiovascular status carefully, including blood pressure, heart rate, and other relevant parameters. If the patient’s hemodynamics are stable, CPD can be a viable treatment option. Incorrect answer options: A) Previous attempts at hemodialysis must have been unsuccessful. While some patients switch to CPD after unsuccessful hemodialysis, it’s not a required criterion. CPD can be the first choice for various reasons, including lifestyle preferences or medical indications. B) The patient’s vascular access point needs to be fully healed. This is more relevant for hemodialysis, where vascular access is crucial. In CPD, a peritoneal catheter is used, making vascular access less of a concern. C) The patient must have severe pulmonary edema. Severe pulmonary edema is a medical emergency that may require immediate intervention, possibly including hemodialysis. It is not a criterion for starting CPD, which is generally a longer-term treatment option. 46. Correct answer: B) Cease taking phenazopyridine as soon as symptoms of painful urination subside. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is a medication often used to relieve symptoms of urinary tract irritation, such as pain, burning, and urgency. However, it’s important to note that this medication does not treat the underlying infection; it only alleviates symptoms. Therefore, once the symptoms have subsided, it’s advisable to stop taking phenazopyridine. Continuing to take it unnecessarily could lead to side effects like headache, dizziness, and stomach upset. Think of phenazopyridine like a pain-relieving gel you might apply to a sprained ankle. The gel helps to relieve the pain and discomfort, but it doesn’t actually heal the sprain. Once the pain has subsided, you would stop applying the gel and focus on other aspects of treatment, like rest and physical therapy. Similarly, phenazopyridine helps to relieve the discomfort of cystitis, but it doesn’t treat the underlying infection. Once the symptoms are manageable, it’s best to stop taking it and continue with the prescribed antibiotics to treat the infection. Nurse Laura should emphasize to the patient that phenazopyridine is a symptomatic treatment and should be used in conjunction with antibiotics to treat the underlying infection. She should also inform the patient about the potential side effects and when to consult a healthcare provider. Incorrect answer options: A) Administer phenazopyridine immediately prior to urinating to alleviate discomfort. Phenazopyridine does not need to be timed around urination. It is generally taken after meals to reduce stomach upset, and its effects last for several hours. C) Stop the course of prescribed antibiotics once the painful urination is alleviated. Stopping antibiotics prematurely can lead to antibiotic resistance and recurrence of the infection. Phenazopyridine is not a substitute for antibiotics; both are needed for effective treatment. D) Contact the physician if your urine becomes orange-red in color. Orange-red urine is a common and expected side effect of phenazopyridine. It is not a cause for concern and does not require contacting a physician. 47. Correct answer: A) To swap potassium ions for sodium ions. Polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is primarily used to treat hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. In patients with renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete potassium, leading to dangerous levels that can cause cardiac arrhythmias. Kayexalate works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, thereby facilitating the removal of excess potassium from the body through fecal excretion. Imagine your body as a busy airport where planes (ions) are constantly landing and taking off. Normally, air traffic control (your kidneys) ensures that the right number of planes are on the ground. But if air traffic control isn’t working well (renal failure), too many potassium planes accumulate. Kayexalate acts like a special runway that allows potassium planes to be swapped out for sodium planes, helping to clear the “air traffic” and restore balance. Nurse Melissa should be cautious when administering Kayexalate, especially in patients with congestive heart failure or hypertension, as the sodium ions can exacerbate these conditions. Monitoring of serum potassium levels is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment. Incorrect answer options: B) To counteract constipation resulting from sorbitol usage. Kayexalate is not used to counteract constipation; in fact, it is often administered with sorbitol to prevent constipation that Kayexalate itself might cause. C) To rectify acid-base imbalances. While renal failure can lead to acid-base imbalances, Kayexalate is not designed to address this issue. Its primary function is to treat hyperkalemia. D) To lower elevated serum phosphate concentrations. Kayexalate is not used to lower phosphate levels. Phosphate binders like calcium acetate or sevelamer are used for that purpose. 48. Correct answer: D) Urine that is dark in color and produced in low amounts. The symptom most indicative of renal calculi (kidney stones) in this case is the dark-colored urine produced in low amounts. Dark urine suggests hematuria (blood in the urine), which is a common symptom of kidney stones. The low urine output could indicate an obstruction in the urinary tract, possibly caused by a kidney stone. The intense pain on the right side of the lower back, known as renal colic, further supports this diagnosis. Imagine your urinary system as a series of interconnected water pipes. Normally, water (urine) flows freely through these pipes. But what happens if a small rock (kidney stone) gets lodged in one of the pipes? The water flow is obstructed, leading to a buildup of pressure and eventually causing the pipe to leak or even burst. This is similar to what happens in your body when a kidney stone obstructs the urinary tract, leading to pain and changes in urine color and amount. Given the patient’s elevated blood pressure and increased heart and respiratory rates, it’s crucial to manage the pain and potential obstruction promptly to prevent further complications, such as kidney damage or infection. Incorrect answer options: A) Vomiting that resembles coffee grounds in color. While nausea and vomiting can be associated with kidney stones, coffee-ground vomitus is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than renal calculi. B) Pain that extends toward the right upper abdominal area. Pain extending to the right upper abdominal area is more likely to be associated with liver or gallbladder issues rather than kidney stones. C) A history of experiencing mild symptoms of the flu the previous week. Flu-like symptoms are not directly related to kidney stones and could be coincidental or indicative of another issue altogether. 49. Correct answer: C) Indefinitely, for the duration of the patient’s life. Immunosuppression is generally continued indefinitely for the duration of the patient’s life following a kidney transplant. This is because the immune system naturally identifies the transplanted kidney as a foreign object and will attempt to reject it. Immunosuppressive medications help to dampen this immune response, making it less likely for the body to reject the new kidney. It’s a delicate balance; too little immunosuppression can lead to organ rejection, while too much can make the patient susceptible to infections and other complications. Think of the immune system as a vigilant security guard at a gated community. Normally, this guard (the immune system) is trained to recognize and allow only residents (your body’s own cells) to enter. When a new resident (the transplanted kidney) moves in, the guard is naturally suspicious. Immunosuppressive therapy acts like an ongoing message from the community manager, instructing the guard to allow this new resident to stay without causing trouble. This message needs to be continually relayed to ensure long-term acceptance of the new resident. Regular monitoring is essential to adjust the types and dosages of immunosuppressive medications based on the patient’s condition, lab results, and any signs of rejection or infection. This is a lifelong commitment to ensure the longevity of the transplanted organ. Incorrect answer options: A) Only for one week post-transplant. Immunosuppression for only one week would be insufficient to prevent organ rejection. The immune system would likely recognize and attack the transplanted kidney soon after the cessation of medication. B) For the initial 24 hours following the transplant. Only 24 hours of immunosuppression would be grossly inadequate. The risk of acute organ rejection would be extremely high, potentially leading to graft failure. D) Until there are no further signs of kidney rejection. This option is misleading because the absence of signs of kidney rejection doesn’t mean that the risk has been eliminated. The immune system can mount an attack against the transplanted organ at any time, making lifelong immunosuppression necessary. 50. Correct answer: B) “I experience a burning sensation during urination.” A burning sensation during urination is a classic symptom of a urinary tract infection (UTI). This symptom is medically referred to as “dysuria,” and it occurs due to the inflammation and irritation of the urethra or bladder. When bacteria invade these areas, they can cause discomfort and a burning sensation during urination. This symptom is often one of the first and most noticeable signs that prompt individuals to seek medical attention for a UTI. Imagine your urinary tract as a water pipe system. Normally, water (urine) flows smoothly through the pipes (urethra and bladder). When there’s a bacterial invasion, it’s like having debris in the pipes, causing friction and discomfort (burning sensation) as water tries to pass through. Just as you’d call a plumber to remove the debris and restore smooth flow, medical treatment is needed to eliminate the bacteria causing the UTI. Prompt diagnosis and treatment with antibiotics are essential to prevent the infection from spreading to other parts of the urinary system or causing more severe complications. A urine culture and sensitivity test are often performed to identify the specific bacteria causing the infection and to determine the most effective antibiotic for treatment. Incorrect answer options: A) “There’s a sweet odor coming from my urine.” A sweet odor in the urine is not a typical symptom of a UTI. This could be indicative of other conditions, such as uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, where excess sugar in the blood spills over into the urine, giving it a sweet smell. It could also be related to certain foods or medications. While a change in urine odor might warrant further investigation, it is not a reliable indicator of a UTI. C) “I can go for long stretches without feeling the need to urinate.” This symptom is more likely related to other conditions, such as dehydration or certain medications affecting urinary retention, rather than a UTI. Dehydration can concentrate the urine, reducing the frequency of urination. Some medications, like anticholinergics, can also affect the bladder’s ability to contract, leading to less frequent urination. This symptom alone is not specific enough to diagnose a UTI and could mislead healthcare providers if considered in isolation. D) “I’ve been urinating quite frequently.” While frequent urination can be a symptom of a UTI, it is not as specific as a burning sensation during urination. Frequent urination can also be caused by other factors like high fluid intake, caffeine, or anxiety. Additionally, conditions like overactive bladder or interstitial cystitis can mimic this symptom. Therefore, while frequent urination may be a clue, it is not definitive enough to diagnose a UTI without other accompanying symptoms like dysuria.Practice Mode
Exam Mode
Text Mode
Questions
B) Inspect the outflow tubing for any kinks or obstructions.
C) Elevate the drainage bag higher than Mr. Thompson’s abdomen.
D) Request Mr. Thompson to perform a cough.
B) Auscultate the AV fistula for bruit and palpate for thrill.
C) Administer a bolus of saline through the AV fistula.
D) Elevate the extremity with the AV fistula above heart level.
B. Establish intravenous lines proximal to the location of the arteriovenous fistula.
C. Feel for pulses distal to the arteriovenous fistula site.
D. Notify the healthcare provider if a bruit or thrill is detected over the arteriovenous fistula.
B. Bacterial or viral infection.
C. Entrapment of air in the bloodstream.
D. Disequilibrium syndrome.
B) Accelerate the rate of the ongoing hemodialysis treatment.
C) Administer a 5% dextrose solution intravenously.
D) Infuse a normal saline solution intravenously.
B) Vigorously rub the affected skin areas with a towel.
C) Utilize alcohol-based emollients for skin moisture.
D) Take baths frequently to keep the skin clean.
B) Advise the patient to maintain complete bed rest.
C) Encourage a diet high in purines.
D) Instruct the patient to strain all urine.
B) Family history of acute glomerulonephritis.
C) A recent episode of a sore throat.
D) History of renal calculi (kidney stones).
B) Muscle relaxants
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
D) Narcotic analgesics
B) The use of invasive procedures.
C) Immunosuppressed state of the patient.
D) Inadequate fluid intake.
B) Tenderness at the costovertebral angle along with chills.
C) Jaundice and pain in the flank area.
D) Increased frequency of urination and urination at night.
B) Increased thirst and frequent urination.
C) Reduced urine output and generalized swelling.
D) Chills and pain in the area between the ribs and hip.
B) Below 200 milliliters.
C) Under 800 milliliters.
D) Not exceeding 1000 milliliters.
B) Blood in the urine.
C) Proteinuria.
D) Elevated blood pressure.
B) Overflow Incontinence.
C) Urge Incontinence.
D) Stress Incontinence.
B) Signs of hemorrhaging or excessive bleeding.
C) Early indications of pneumonia.
D) Symptoms of urine retention.
B) An in-depth digital rectal examination.
C) The use of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
D) Testing for prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels.
B) “You should consult with your physician; statistics suggest your viewpoint may be too optimistic.”
C) “Your statement would hold true if diabetes could solely be managed through insulin.”
D) “As long as your kidneys continue to produce urine, you have minimal concern.”
B) Abstain from engaging in sexual activity.
C) Consume 8 to 10 eight-ounce glasses of water each day.
D) Take cool baths to manage symptoms.
B) “Avoid this drug if you have a penicillin allergy.”
C) “You must complete this antibiotic course for a total of 7 days.”
D) “Expect your urine to possibly change to a bright orange color.”
B) Elevated blood pressure, reduced urine output, and complaints of fatigue.
C) Complaints of back pain accompanied by nausea and vomiting.
D) Symptoms of painful urination, frequent urination, and a sense of urgency.
B) Experience of Pain.
C) Deficit in Patient Knowledge.
D) Intolerance to Physical Activity.
B) Apply consistent pressure to the needle insertion site upon ceasing hemodialysis.
C) Elevate the left arm on an arm board for a minimum of 30 minutes.
D) Maintain the head of the bed at a 45-degree elevation.
B) Altered Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements related to a hypermetabolic state.
C) Fluid Volume Deficit related to osmotic diuresis triggered by hyponatremia.
D) Fluid Volume Deficit related to the inability to conserve water.
B) A daily urine output that doubles, reaching 4 to 5 liters per day.
C) Stabilization of kidney function.
D) A daily urine output of less than 100 ml.
B) A 35-year-old woman who has a fractured wrist.
C) A 50-year-old postmenopausal woman.
D) A 20-year-old woman diagnosed with asthma.
B) The patient should not experience pain during the initiation of dialysis.
C) The patient generally feels at their best immediately following dialysis treatment.
D) Measuring blood pressure on the arm with the arteriovenous fistula can lead to clot formation.
B) No dietary restrictions whatsoever.
C) A low-protein diet with a physician-prescribed amount of water intake.
D) A diet devoid of protein, along with the use of a salt substitute.
B) Hypervolemia
C) Disequilibrium Syndrome
D) Respiratory Distress
B) Advocate for increased fluid intake.
C) Suggest the continued use of an indwelling urinary catheter.
D) Establish designated times for bladder emptying.
B) Protein sources
C) Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C)
D) Carbohydrate intake
B) Compress the fistula and observe the rate of refilling upon release.
C) Palpate along the entire length of the fistula for the presence of a thrill.
D) Evaluate capillary refill time in the nail beds of the same arm.
B) Reduced renal function.
C) Enhanced loss of calcium from the skeletal system.
D) Lowered dietary calcium intake.
B) Excess fluid volume.
C) Elevated risk for physical harm.
D) Reduced tolerance for physical activity.
B) Review the most recent laboratory results for the patient’s potassium level.
C) Ready the equipment for potential defibrillation of the patient.
D) Contact the healthcare provider immediately.
B) At a heightened risk for cancer development because of immunosuppressive therapy with cyclosporine (Neoral).
C) More prone to tumor formation directly due to the kidney transplant.
D) Overwhelmed with anxiety post the life-altering kidney transplant experience.
B) Maintain a normal body temperature and have cultures that show no infection.
C) Work toward ceasing the use of cyclosporine (Neoral) as expediently as safe.
D) Return to regular employment within a period of 2 to 3 weeks post-surgery.
B) Reduced urine production accompanied by low blood pressure.
C) Discomfort at the surgical site, overall feeling of weakness, and signs of depression.
D) Discomfort at the surgical site, overall malaise, and low blood pressure.
B. Nausea and vomiting.
C. Complete absence of urine.
D. Frequent bowel movements.
B. Fluid accumulation in the lungs.
C. Excessive fluid volume in the body.
D. Insufficient fluid volume in the body.
B. Position the patient for shock management and alert the surgical team.
C. Administer a 500ml bolus of isotonic saline solution.
D. Assess the patient’s circulatory status and vital signs.
B. Postpone the catheterization and alert the physician.
C. Thoroughly rinse and clean the urethral opening before proceeding with catheterization.
D. Generously apply lubrication to the catheter before insertion.
B. Complete absence of protein in the urine.
C. Elevated levels of lipids in the blood serum.
D. An increase in overall body weight.
B. In prerenal failure, administering an intravenous infusion of isotonic saline enhances urine production.
C. In prerenal failure, diuretics like furosemide (Lasix) are less effective in eliciting a response.
D. In prerenal failure, vasoactive agents such as dopamine (Intropin) elevate blood pressure levels.
B. The patient’s vascular access point needs to be fully healed.
C. The patient must have severe pulmonary edema.
D. The patient needs to have stable hemodynamic parameters.
B. Cease taking phenazopyridine as soon as symptoms of painful urination subside.
C. Stop the course of prescribed antibiotics once the painful urination is alleviated.
D. Contact the physician if your urine becomes orange-red in color.
B. To counteract constipation resulting from sorbitol usage.
C. To rectify acid-base imbalances.
D. To lower elevated serum phosphate concentrations.
B. Pain that extends toward the right upper abdominal area.
C. A history of experiencing mild symptoms of the flu the previous week.
D. Urine that is dark in color and produced in low amounts.
B. For the initial 24 hours following the transplant.
C. Indefinitely, for the duration of the patient’s life.
D. Until there are no further signs of kidney rejection.
B. “I experience a burning sensation during urination.”
C. “I can go for long stretches without feeling the need to urinate.”
D. “I’ve been urinating quite frequently.”Answers and Rationales