Text Mode – Text version of the exam 1. Is it accurate to assert that there’s a connection between aniline dyes and the onset of cancer? A. Certainly, that’s the case. 2. Which tumor grade is characterized by a complete non-responsiveness to radiation? A. Grade 1 3. A patient suffering from bladder cancer is undergoing treatment via iridium seed implants. What important advice should the nurse emphasize in the discharge instructions for this client? A. Ramp up his consumption of fluids. 4. Is there evidence suggesting a correlation between exposure to the process of pizza making in one’s occupation and the development of bladder cancer? A. Absolutely, there is. 5. When treating superficial bladder cancer, mitomycin (Mutamycin), an antineoplastic antibiotic, can be directly instilled. What is the name for this procedure? A. Intraventricular administration. 6. Which grade corresponds to a very low level of malignancy in a tumor? A. Grade 1 7. What description accurately characterizes anticholinergics? A. Medications that lessen the resistance at the bladder outlet. 8. Which variety of bladder cancer is most frequently diagnosed? A. Hyperplasia of epithelial cells. 9. A patient has been diagnosed with bladder cancer, and preparations are being made for a cystectomy and an ileal conduit. What is the appropriate preoperative plan that the nurse should arrange? A. Arrange for cleansing enemas and laxatives as prescribed. 10. Where does bladder cancer rank in terms of the most frequently diagnosed genitourinary (GU) cancers in adults? A. It holds the 4th position. 11. Besides recurring UTI, nausea/vomiting, and leukopenia, which of the following is also a known adverse reaction to chemotherapy? A. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) 12. What is an accurate characterization of beta-adrenergics? A. Medications that promote detrusor contractility and facilitate bladder emptying. 13. A female patient undergoing radiation therapy for bladder cancer reports to the nurse that it feels as though she’s urinating through the vagina. The nurse surmises that the patient could be experiencing: A. The formation of a vesicovaginal fistula. 14. Which grade of tumor typically shows a poor response to radiation therapy? A. Grade 1 15. Which grade corresponds to a high degree of malignancy, typically associated with anaplastic carcinoma? A. Grade 1 16. What is the primary purpose of conducting a random bladder biopsy? A. To investigate smaller tumors. 17. What circumstance would signal the need to employ chemotherapy? A. The positioning of the tumor. 18. How is Transitional Cell Carcinoma (TCC) best described? A. A cancerous development causing deterioration of the bladder wall and its urothelium. 19. Which medication category is known to lessen the resistance of the bladder outlet? A. Hormones such as estrogens. 20. The decision to administer chemotherapy hinges on the overall health status of the patient. Is this statement: A. Accurate 21. What defines alpha-adrenergic medications? A. Drugs that lessen the resistance of the bladder outlet. 22. A male patient, post-radium implant for bladder cancer, is to be admitted to the nursing ward. What would be the most critical action for the head nurse to take in managing this patient’s care? A. Assign the patient to a solitary room. 23. Which tumor grade is typically known to exhibit resistance? A. Grade 1 tumor 24. Which tumor grade signifies the least degree of malignancy? A. Grade 1 tumor 25. A male patient suffering from bladder cancer has undergone a bladder removal and an ileal conduit has been created for urine diversion. Upon changing this patient’s pouch, the nurse notes that the area surrounding the stoma is reddened, oozing, and causing the patient discomfort. What should Nurse Katrina infer from this observation? A. The skin barrier has been correctly installed. 26. What is the total number of recognized grades for categorizing cancer? A. 5 grades 27. What proportion of bladder cancers is represented by squamous cell carcinoma? A. 3% of cases 28. The statement that occupational exposure to aromatic amines does not lead to cancer is: A. Accurate 29. How do tricyclic antidepressants impact the urinary system? A. Medications that reduce the resistance at the bladder outlet. 30. Mr. Canelo, who has been diagnosed with bladder cancer, is due for a cystectomy along with the formation of an ileal conduit the following morning. He’s noticed to be pacing the floor and anxiously wringing his hands as the nurse enters his room. What’s the most appropriate response? A. “Mr. Canelo, at this rate, you’ll exhaust both yourself and the hospital floors.” 31. What is the most common initial symptom associated with bladder cancer? A. Pain in the flank due to a blockage in the ureter or a pelvic mass. 32. Which category of drugs is known to suppress contractility and encourage the retention of urine? A. Antispasmodic agents. 33. A male patient is undergoing a chemotherapy regimen to treat bladder cancer, which includes a weekly 60 mg dose of the cell cycle–nonspecific alkylating agent thiotepa (Thioplex) for four weeks via bladder installation. When he asks the nurse how the medication works, what would be the correct explanation for thiotepa’s therapeutic effects? A. It disrupts both DNA replication and RNA transcription processes. 34. The statement that artificial sweeteners, pelvic irradiation, and chronic cystitis cannot lead to cancer is: A. Accurate 35. What is the primary action of cholinergic medications within the urinary system? A. Medications that trigger detrusor muscle contractility and aid in bladder emptying. 1. Correct answer: A. Certainly, that’s the case. Aniline dyes, also known as aromatic amines, are indeed linked to the onset of certain types of cancer. Occupational exposure to these substances, which are used widely in the textile, rubber, and dye industries, has been associated with a higher risk of developing bladder cancer. This relationship was discovered in the late 19th and early 20th centuries when an unusually high number of bladder cancer cases were observed among workers in these industries. The carcinogenic effect is believed to occur due to the formation of reactive metabolites of the aniline compounds that can interact with DNA, leading to mutations and, eventually, the abnormal cell growth characteristic of cancer. Incorrect answer option: B. No, that’s not correct. This answer is incorrect because extensive research and epidemiological evidence indicate a clear association between aniline dye exposure and an increased risk of certain cancers, particularly bladder cancer. 2. Correct answer: D. Grade 4. Tumor grading is a system used to classify a malignant tumor in terms of how aggressive the cancer cells are, how much the tumor resembles normal tissue, and how quickly it’s likely to grow and spread. Grade 4 tumors are generally the most aggressive and least like normal tissue. They have a high degree of abnormality in cell morphology and have a high mitotic index (the ratio of cells in the process of dividing to the total number of cells). While it’s not necessarily correct to say that Grade 4 tumors are “completely non-responsive” to radiation, it’s fair to say that these tumors are often more resistant to radiation therapy and other forms of treatment compared to lower-grade tumors. This is generally because high-grade tumors grow rapidly, and their cells are often less sensitive to the DNA-damaging effects of radiation. However, responsiveness can also depend on the specific type of cancer, location, and individual patient factors. Incorrect answer options: A. Grade 1. Grade 1 tumors are low-grade tumors. They are well-differentiated, which means they look much like the normal cells of the same type of tissue. These tumors grow slowly and are less likely to spread to other parts of the body. They are typically more responsive to treatment including radiation therapy. B. Grade 2. Grade 2 tumors are intermediate-grade tumors. They are moderately differentiated. The cells and growth patterns of these tumors are abnormal, but not as much as in grade 3 or 4 tumors. They have a moderate rate of growth and are somewhat likely to spread. Their response to treatment such as radiation can vary but is generally better than grade 4 tumors. C. Grade 3. Grade 3 tumors are high-grade tumors. They are poorly differentiated or undifferentiated. These cells and their growth patterns are quite abnormal. They grow more quickly than cells of lower grade tumors, are more likely to spread, and can be more difficult to treat. However, they can still show some response to radiation therapy, unlike grade 4 tumors. 3. Correct answer: D. Inform about any changes in urinary frequency. An important aspect of bladder cancer care, especially when a patient has received iridium seed implants, is monitoring for changes in urinary patterns. This is because alterations in urinary frequency, urgency, or discomfort can signal potential complications such as radiation cystitis, infection, or obstruction. This vigilance is crucial as early detection allows prompt treatment and can prevent further complications. Incorrect answer options: A. Ramp up his consumption of fluids. Although hydration is generally beneficial, it does not specifically pertain to the care of a patient with iridium seed implants for bladder cancer. Moreover, excessive fluid intake could potentially lead to increased urinary frequency and may cause discomfort, particularly if there’s irritation or inflammation of the bladder due to radiation therapy. B. Refrain from sitting for extended periods. While maintaining regular movement and avoiding prolonged periods of inactivity is a general good health recommendation, it’s not directly relevant to a patient with iridium seed implants for bladder cancer. This advice is more applicable to prevention of deep vein thrombosis or pressure ulcers. C. Limit bowel movements. There’s no reason for a patient with bladder cancer treated with iridium seed implants to limit bowel movements. Regular bowel movements help maintain digestive health and comfort. In fact, constipation could increase discomfort due to pressure on the bladder. 4. Correct answer: B. Not at all, there isn’t. There is no established or researched link between the occupational process of pizza making and the development of bladder cancer. Risk factors for bladder cancer typically include smoking, exposure to certain chemicals, and chronic irritation of the bladder, among others. While certain occupations have been associated with an increased risk of bladder cancer due to exposure to harmful chemicals (such as in the rubber, chemical, and textile industries), pizza making has not been identified as one of these high-risk occupations. Incorrect answer option: A. Absolutely, there is. This statement is incorrect based on the current scientific understanding. While it’s always possible that new research could emerge after my knowledge cutoff, as of that time, there’s no evidence or study suggesting that there’s a correlation between the process of pizza making in one’s occupation and the development of bladder cancer. 5. Correct answer: B. Intravesical administration. Intravesical administration refers to the direct instillation of a drug into the bladder. This method is used to treat superficial bladder cancer because it allows for direct contact between the drug and the cancer cells. Mitomycin is one such drug that can be administered in this way. It is introduced through a catheter directly into the bladder, minimizing systemic exposure and reducing side effects. The medical term “intravesical” comes from the Latin words “intra” meaning “within” and “vesica” meaning “bladder.” Therefore, intravesical literally means “within the bladder.” Incorrect answer options: A. Intraventricular administration. This term refers to the administration of a drug into a ventricle of the brain or heart. This is not applicable in the context of bladder cancer treatment. C. Intraarterial administration. This involves injecting a drug directly into an artery, typically for localized treatment of cancers in specific organs. While intraarterial administration is used in some cancer treatments, it is not the method used for instilling mitomycin into the bladder. D. Intrathecal administration. Intrathecal administration refers to the introduction of a drug into the spinal canal. This is commonly used for administering certain types of drugs (like chemotherapy or antibiotics) directly into the cerebrospinal fluid. This route of administration is not relevant to bladder cancer treatment. 6. Correct answer: A. Grade 1. Grade 1 tumors, often referred to as low-grade tumors, exhibit a very low level of malignancy. They are typically well-differentiated, which means the cells in these tumors resemble normal cells of the same tissue type. Consequently, these tumors tend to grow and spread more slowly compared to higher grade tumors. This slow growth combined with a high degree of similarity to normal cells results in a generally better prognosis and more favorable response to treatments compared to higher-grade tumors. Incorrect answer options: B. Grade 2. Grade 2 tumors are intermediate-grade tumors. They are moderately differentiated and exhibit abnormal cell and growth patterns, but not as much as grade 3 or 4 tumors. These tumors are more aggressive and malignant than grade 1 tumors, though they are still usually treatable. C. Grade 3. Grade 3 tumors are high-grade tumors. They are poorly differentiated or undifferentiated, meaning the cells don’t look much like normal cells of the same tissue type. They grow more quickly than cells of lower grade tumors and are more likely to spread, which contributes to a higher level of malignancy compared to grade 1 and 2 tumors. D. Grade 4. Grade 4 tumors are the most malignant, often referred to as high-grade tumors. They are usually poorly differentiated or undifferentiated, indicating that they bear little resemblance to the normal cells of the same tissue type. These tumors grow rapidly, can invade surrounding tissues and organs, and can spread (metastasize) to other parts of the body. They tend to be the most challenging to treat effectively. 7. Correct answer: B. Medications that reduce contractility and aid in urine retention. Anticholinergics, also known as antimuscarinics, are a class of medications used to treat a variety of conditions that involve the contraction and relaxation of muscles. In the context of urinary disorders, they act by blocking the action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine on the smooth muscles of the bladder. This leads to a reduction in bladder contractility, which helps to alleviate symptoms such as urinary frequency, urgency, and incontinence often seen in conditions like overactive bladder syndrome. By reducing bladder contractility, they indirectly aid in urine retention. Incorrect answer options: A. Medications that lessen the resistance at the bladder outlet. Anticholinergics don’t act by reducing resistance at the bladder outlet. This action is more characteristic of alpha-blockers which are used in conditions like benign prostatic hyperplasia to aid urine flow. C. Medications that encourage detrusor contractility and facilitate bladder emptying. Anticholinergics actually have the opposite effect; they reduce the contractility of the detrusor muscle, which is the main muscle of the bladder wall. D. Medications that enhance the resistance at the bladder outlet. Anticholinergics do not enhance the resistance at the bladder outlet. Drugs that increase outlet resistance are typically used for stress incontinence and include alpha agonists. 8. Correct answer: C. Carcinoma of transitional cells. Transitional cell carcinoma (TCC), also known as urothelial carcinoma, is the most frequently diagnosed type of bladder cancer. It represents approximately 90% of all bladder cancers. Transitional cells are a type of cell that lines the bladder. These cells are unique in that they can “transition” or change shape and stretch without breaking apart when the bladder is full and needs to contract to empty. A malignancy of these cells can lead to bladder cancer. Incorrect answer options: A. Hyperplasia of epithelial cells. Hyperplasia refers to the proliferation of cells within an organ or tissue beyond their normal volume. Although it is often a precancerous condition, it is not a type of cancer itself. B. Carcinoma of cuboidal cells. This is not a recognized classification of bladder cancer. Bladder cancers are usually classified based on the type of cells from which they originate, such as transitional cells (urothelial carcinoma), squamous cells (squamous cell carcinoma), or glandular cells (adenocarcinoma). D. Carcinoma of squamous cells. Squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder is relatively rare, accounting for only a small percentage of all bladder cancers. This type of cancer forms in the squamous cells, which are thin, flat cells that may form in the bladder after long-term infection or irritation. 9. Correct answer: A. Arrange for cleansing enemas and laxatives as prescribed. Before an ileal conduit procedure, the bowel needs to be thoroughly cleaned out. This is to reduce the risk of infection from bacteria in the intestines. Cleansing enemas and laxatives are usually prescribed for this purpose. The nurse should arrange for these to be administered as prescribed and provide patient education regarding the purpose and process of this bowel preparation. Incorrect answer options: B. Restrict the intake of fluids for the next 24 hours. Fluid restriction is generally not part of preoperative preparation for a cystectomy and ileal conduit procedure. Hydration is important for patients undergoing surgery. Fluid intake might be restricted just prior to surgery, but this should not last for 24 hours. C. Instruct the patient on muscle-tightening exercises. While muscle strengthening exercises, especially pelvic floor exercises, might be beneficial for certain conditions related to urinary incontinence, they are not usually part of the preoperative plan for a patient undergoing a cystectomy and ileal conduit procedure. D. Educate the patient about the stoma irrigation procedure. Stoma irrigation is a method of managing bowel elimination for some patients with a colostomy, not an ileal conduit. For a patient undergoing a cystectomy with ileal conduit creation, the education focus would be more on stoma care and the use and care of a urine collection bag. 10. Correct answer: D. It secured 2nd place. Bladder cancer is the second most common genitourinary (GU) cancer in adults, preceded by prostate cancer which is the most common. Bladder cancer, while common, is often detected early when it is highly treatable. It’s more frequent in males than females, and its incidence increases with age. Incorrect answer options: A. It holds the 4th position. Bladder cancer is more common than other GU cancers like kidney and testicular cancer, making it rank higher than the 4th position. B. It’s at the top, the 1st place. Bladder cancer is not the most commonly diagnosed GU cancer in adults. This distinction goes to prostate cancer. C. It’s positioned 8th. Bladder cancer is more common than this and therefore ranks much higher than 8th place in terms of the most frequently diagnosed GU cancers in adults. 11. Correct answer: B. Nephrotoxicity. Chemotherapy can potentially have a toxic effect on the kidneys, leading to a condition known as nephrotoxicity. This is because the kidneys play a key role in eliminating many chemotherapy drugs from the body. High doses of certain drugs or prolonged use can damage the kidneys, impairing their ability to filter and eliminate waste products. It’s important for patients undergoing chemotherapy to have their kidney function monitored regularly. Incorrect answer options: A. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH). BPH is a noncancerous enlargement of the prostate gland common in older men. While hormonal changes can contribute to its development, it’s not a known adverse reaction to chemotherapy. C. Glaucoma. Glaucoma is a condition that damages the eye’s optic nerve, typically due to high fluid pressure in the eye. It’s not associated with chemotherapy. D. Fistula. A fistula is an abnormal connection between two body parts, such as an organ and the skin or between two organs. Fistulas are typically caused by injury or surgery, but they can also result from an infection or inflammation. They are not a common side effect of chemotherapy. 12. Correct answer: D. Medications that suppress contractility and foster urine storage. Beta-adrenergic drugs work by relaxing the bladder’s detrusor muscle, which aids in the storage of urine and can prevent involuntary contractions that can cause urgency and incontinence. They also inhibit bladder contraction and delay the urge to void. Therefore, they are often used in the management of overactive bladder and urge incontinence. Incorrect answer options: A. Medications that promote detrusor contractility and facilitate bladder emptying. This description is more accurate for cholinergic medications, which stimulate the detrusor muscle, promoting bladder emptying. B. Medications that promote bladder emptying. This description again aligns more with cholinergic medications, which stimulate the contraction of the detrusor muscle to facilitate bladder emptying. Beta-adrenergics, on the other hand, relaxes the detrusor muscle and suppresses bladder contractility. C. Medications that increase the resistance at the bladder outlet. This description is more accurate for alpha-adrenergic agonists, which can increase the tone of the muscles at the bladder neck and prostate, thereby increasing resistance at the bladder outlet. 13. Correct answer: A. The formation of a vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula is an abnormal communication between the urinary bladder and the vagina that results in involuntary leakage of urine into the vagina. This condition can occur as a complication of radiation therapy for bladder cancer. If a patient reports symptoms suggestive of urine passing through the vagina, it’s crucial to evaluate for the presence of a fistula. Incorrect answer options: B. A breach in the bladder. While a breach or rupture in the bladder could potentially cause leakage of urine, it wouldn’t typically cause the sensation of urinating through the vagina. C. Changed sensation in the perineal area due to the side effects of radiation therapy. While radiation therapy can cause various side effects, including changes in sensation, it wouldn’t typically cause the specific sensation of urinating through the vagina. D. Intense stress stemming from her cancer diagnosis. While stress can manifest in various physical symptoms, it’s unlikely to cause the specific symptom of feeling like one is urinating through the vagina. 14. Correct answer: D. Grade 4. Grade 4 tumors are often poorly differentiated or undifferentiated, meaning that the tumor cells do not resemble normal cells. These types of tumors are typically aggressive, grow rapidly, and tend to spread to other parts of the body. Unfortunately, they are also less likely to respond to radiation therapy compared to lower grade, better-differentiated tumors. This is due to several factors, including their rapid cell division and genetic instability, which can make them more resistant to treatment. Incorrect answer options: A. Grade 1. Grade 1 tumors are well-differentiated and typically respond better to radiation therapy compared to higher grade tumors. B. Grade 2. Grade 2 tumors are moderately differentiated and also typically respond better to radiation therapy compared to higher grade tumors. C. Grade 3. Grade 3 tumors are poorly differentiated or undifferentiated, but they typically have a better response to radiation therapy than Grade 4 tumors. 15. Correct answer: D. Grade 4. Grade 4 tumors are often associated with a high degree of malignancy and typically correspond to anaplastic carcinoma. These tumors are poorly differentiated or undifferentiated, meaning they do not resemble normal cells. They tend to grow rapidly, invade surrounding tissues, and metastasize to other parts of the body. Anaplastic carcinoma is a term used to describe cancers that are highly malignant and aggressive, characteristics typical of grade 4 tumors. Incorrect answer options: A. Grade 1. Grade 1 tumors are well-differentiated and resemble normal cells. They usually have a lower degree of malignancy and grow and spread more slowly. B. Grade 2. Grade 2 tumors are moderately differentiated. They do not resemble normal cells as closely as grade 1 tumors, but they are less aggressive than grade 3 or 4 tumors. C. Grade 3. Grade 3 tumors are poorly differentiated or undifferentiated. They are more aggressive than grade 1 or 2 tumors but less aggressive than grade 4 tumors. 16. Correct answer: D. To verify the stage and grade of the tumor. A random bladder biopsy, which involves taking small samples of tissue from various areas of the bladder, is primarily used to verify the stage and grade of a bladder tumor. The stage of the tumor refers to the extent of the cancer and whether it has spread beyond the bladder, while the grade refers to how abnormal the cancer cells look under a microscope. This information is critical in planning appropriate treatment strategies for bladder cancer. Incorrect answer options: A. To investigate smaller tumors. While a biopsy can certainly identify smaller tumors, its primary purpose is not to investigate them but to determine the stage and grade of the tumor. B. To study invasive characteristics. A biopsy can reveal whether a tumor is invasive, but its primary purpose is to verify the stage and grade of the tumor, which includes but is not limited to its invasive characteristics. C. To confirm stages T1-T4. Staging is part of the purpose of a biopsy, but the primary purpose is broader, encompassing both stage and grade. 17. Correct answer: B. Recurrence of Carcinoma in situ (CIS). Carcinoma in situ (CIS) is a type of early stage cancer where the abnormal cells are located in their place of origin and haven’t spread to nearby tissues. In bladder cancer, CIS is high-grade and can become invasive if not treated, or recur after treatment. If CIS is recurrent, it is usually treated with more aggressive measures such as chemotherapy, to prevent it from progressing to a more advanced and invasive stage. Incorrect answer options: A. The positioning of the tumor. While the position of the tumor can influence the treatment plan, it alone doesn’t dictate the need for chemotherapy. The decision to use chemotherapy is based on a variety of factors, including the stage and grade of the cancer, patient’s overall health and their preference. C. Persistent reflux. Reflux, or backward flow of urine from the bladder to the kidneys, can potentially cause complications but it’s typically not an indication for chemotherapy. Management of reflux usually involves dealing with the underlying cause, which might include medication or surgery. D. Excessive fatigue. Fatigue is a common symptom of cancer and its treatments, but it is not an indication for chemotherapy. If a patient is experiencing excessive fatigue, this should be evaluated for possible causes, which may include anemia, nutritional deficiencies, or other conditions. 18. Correct answer: B. A malignancy that originates from the urothelial lining of the urinary tract. Transitional Cell Carcinoma (TCC) is a type of cancer that develops in the urothelium, the lining of the urinary tract. This includes the lining of the bladder, ureters, and part of the kidney (renal pelvis) and urethra. It’s the most common type of bladder cancer and can also occur in other parts of the urinary tract. Incorrect answer options: A. A cancerous development causing deterioration of the bladder wall and its urothelium. While TCC does indeed originate in the urothelium and can infiltrate the bladder wall as it progresses, this description does not adequately capture the full definition of TCC. C. A benign expansion of the urothelium triggered by inflammation or irritation. TCC is not benign but malignant, meaning it can invade nearby tissues and spread to other parts of the body. D. An aggressive form of bladder cancer with poor prognosis. While some forms of TCC can indeed be aggressive and have poor prognosis, this is not universally true for all cases of TCC. Prognosis depends on factors such as the stage and grade of the cancer, as well as patient factors. 19. Correct answer: C. Medications that block alpha-adrenergic receptors. These medications, such as tamsulosin and terazosin, are alpha-blockers. They function by relaxing the muscles in the bladder neck and prostate, reducing resistance at the bladder outlet and making it easier for urine to pass through. This category of medications is commonly used in conditions like benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Incorrect answer options: A. Hormones such as estrogens. While hormones can have various effects on the body, they do not directly reduce the resistance of the bladder outlet. B. Agents that stimulate beta-adrenergic receptors. Beta-adrenergic medications often promote relaxation of smooth muscle, including the bladder’s detrusor muscle, which aids in urine storage, not in decreasing resistance at the bladder outlet. D. Medications that stimulate alpha-adrenergic receptors. Alpha-adrenergic agonists would increase muscle tone in the prostate and bladder neck, increasing resistance at the bladder outlet rather than lessening it. 20. Correct answer: A. Accurate. The decision to administer chemotherapy indeed depends on several factors, one of the most important of which is the overall health status of the patient. Chemotherapy can have significant side effects and can be particularly hard on patients with poor overall health or those with other serious underlying health conditions. Other factors that are considered when deciding on chemotherapy include the type and stage of the cancer, the potential benefits and risks of the treatment, the patient’s preferences and quality of life considerations, and the availability of other treatment options. In order to make an informed decision about chemotherapy, physicians generally evaluate a patient’s performance status, which is a measure of their ability to perform normal activities and care for themselves. They also assess organ function, including kidney and liver function, since these organs are involved in metabolizing chemotherapy drugs and could be affected by the treatment. Incorrect answer option: B. Inaccurate. This answer is incorrect, as the patient’s overall health status is indeed a major consideration when deciding to administer chemotherapy. It’s an important part of ensuring that the treatment is not only effective, but also safe and tolerable for the patient. 21. Correct answer: C. Drugs that augment bladder outlet resistance. Alpha-adrenergic medications, also known as alpha agonists, are drugs that bind to alpha-adrenergic receptors on the smooth muscles of blood vessels and the bladder outlet (also called the internal urethral sphincter). When these receptors are stimulated, they cause the smooth muscle to contract. In the case of the bladder outlet, this contraction increases the resistance to urine flow, helping to retain urine in the bladder and prevent incontinence. This mechanism is particularly helpful in conditions like stress urinary incontinence. Incorrect answer options: A. Drugs that lessen the resistance of the bladder outlet. This is incorrect because alpha-adrenergic medications increase, not decrease, the resistance of the bladder outlet by promoting contraction of the internal urethral sphincter. B. Drugs that suppress contractility and encourage urine retention. While alpha-adrenergic medications do encourage urine retention, they do not suppress contractility; rather, they increase the contractility of the smooth muscles in the bladder outlet. D. Drugs that trigger detrusor muscle contractility and facilitate bladder emptying. This is incorrect because the detrusor muscle, which is the main muscle of the bladder body, is primarily influenced by cholinergic medications (like bethanechol), not alpha-adrenergic medications. Activation of the detrusor muscle encourages bladder emptying, which is contrary to the role of alpha-adrenergic medications in promoting urine retention. 22. Correct answer: A. Assign the patient to a solitary room. The most critical action would be to assign the patient to a solitary room. The reason is that a patient post-radium implant poses a radiation risk to others. Radium is a radioactive material used in some forms of cancer treatment. Its radioactivity can be harmful to other patients, staff, or visitors if not properly contained. Therefore, patients who have had a radium implant are often kept in a private room to limit exposure to others. Incorrect answer options: B. Advocate for the patient to have regular rest periods. While rest is important for all patients, particularly those undergoing cancer treatment, it is not the most critical action in this scenario. The patient’s radioactivity poses a more significant risk that needs to be addressed first. C. Order sedative medications for the patient to reduce anxiety. While anxiety management is a crucial part of holistic patient care, it’s not the most critical action in managing the care of a patient who has had a radium implant. Again, limiting radiation exposure to others takes precedence. D. Implement protective reverse isolation for the patient. Reverse isolation is typically used for patients who have a compromised immune system, such as those undergoing chemotherapy or bone marrow transplantation, and are at risk of infection. While it’s important to protect the patient from infections, the primary concern with a radium implant is the radiation risk it poses to others. 23. Correct answer: D. Grade 4 tumor. Tumor grading is a system used to classify a malignant tumor in terms of how aggressive the cancer is, which is determined based on how much the cancer cells resemble normal cells. A Grade 4 tumor is generally considered high-grade and the most aggressive. These tumors often grow rapidly, are less likely to resemble normal cells (highly undifferentiated), are more likely to spread (high metastatic potential), and often exhibit resistance to treatment. Resistance can occur due to various mechanisms such as alterations in drug targets, increased DNA repair, activation of survival pathways, or increased drug efflux. Incorrect answer options: A. Grade 1 tumor. These are considered low-grade tumors. They tend to grow slowly and look more like normal cells (well-differentiated). They are typically less resistant to treatment than higher-grade tumors. B. Grade 2 tumor. This is an intermediate-grade tumor. These tumors grow at a moderate rate and have cells that are somewhat differentiated. They are typically less resistant to treatment than higher-grade tumors. C. Grade 3 tumor. These tumors are higher-grade but still less aggressive and less likely to be resistant to treatment than Grade 4 tumors. 24. Correct answer: A. Grade 1 tumor. In the context of tumor grading, a Grade 1 tumor typically signifies the least degree of malignancy. Tumor grades are based on the extent to which the cancer cells resemble normal, healthy cells when viewed under a microscope. A Grade 1 tumor, often referred to as a “low-grade” or “well-differentiated” tumor, is generally slow-growing and its cells look more similar to normal cells. These tumors are typically less aggressive and have a better prognosis compared to higher grade tumors. Incorrect answer options: B. Grade 2 tumor. This is an intermediate-grade tumor. These tumors grow at a moderate rate and the cells are somewhat differentiated. They are typically more aggressive than Grade 1 tumors. C. Grade 3 tumor. These tumors are higher-grade and are usually more aggressive and less similar to normal cells compared to Grade 1 and 2 tumors. D. Grade 4 tumor. These are the most aggressive and high-grade tumors. Their cells often look very different from normal cells (highly undifferentiated) and they tend to grow and spread rapidly. 25. Correct answer: D. The faceplate of the pouch isn’t fitting the stoma properly. The symptoms described, including skin redness, oozing, and patient discomfort around the stoma site, suggest that the pouching system isn’t fitting well. When the faceplate (or skin barrier) doesn’t fit the stoma correctly, it can allow leakage of urine onto the skin. This can cause irritation, inflammation, and discomfort, which seems to be the case with this patient. Therefore, a pouching system with a better fit to the stoma should be sought to prevent further skin damage and discomfort. Incorrect answer options: A. The skin barrier has been correctly installed. The skin symptoms suggest the opposite – that the skin barrier (or faceplate) has not been correctly installed, as it’s allowing urine to contact and irritate the skin. B. There has been no dilation of the stoma. Dilation of the stoma is usually not a concern with an ileal conduit. Dilation is more relevant to continent diversion types, such as a neobladder, where stenosis can prevent effective emptying. C. The skin wasn’t properly lubricated prior to the application of the pouch. While proper skin care is important for stoma management, lubrication is generally not required or recommended under the pouching system, as it could interfere with adhesive function. The primary issue here seems to be an improper fit of the pouching system, allowing urine leakage onto the skin. 26. Correct answer: B. 4 grades. The grading system that is most commonly used for tumors ranges from Grade 1 to Grade 4. A Grade 1 tumor is usually well differentiated, meaning the cancer cells resemble normal cells. Grade 2 is intermediate. Grade 3 and Grade 4 tumors are poorly differentiated or undifferentiated, meaning the cancer cells do not resemble normal cells and are more aggressive. The grade of a tumor helps clinicians understand how fast the cancer is likely to grow and spread, thereby informing treatment plans and helping to predict patient outcomes. Incorrect answer options: A. 5 grades. This is incorrect as the common grading system for tumors generally includes four grades. C. 3 grades. Some specific types of cancers or tumors may use a three-grade system, but the standard grading system for most types of cancer has four grades. D. 6 grades. This is incorrect. The standard tumor grading system does not go up to six grades. 27. Correct answer: A. 3% of cases. Squamous cell carcinoma represents a small proportion of bladder cancers. In the United States and other Western countries, it accounts for about 3-5% of all bladder cancer cases. It is more commonly seen in regions where schistosomiasis, a parasitic infection, is endemic, such as parts of Africa and the Middle East. Incorrect answer options: B. 5% of cases. While squamous cell carcinoma can account for up to 5% of bladder cancers, it’s less common than this in most Western countries. C. 50% of cases. This is significantly higher than the true proportion. The vast majority of bladder cancers (70-80%) are urothelial (or transitional cell) carcinomas, not squamous cell carcinomas. D. 95% of cases. This is far higher than the actual percentage. Squamous cell carcinoma is much less common than this. 28. Correct answer: B. Inaccurate. The statement that occupational exposure to aromatic amines does not lead to cancer is inaccurate. Several studies have shown that occupational exposure to certain aromatic amines, such as benzidine and beta-naphthylamine, can increase the risk of developing bladder cancer. This connection was first discovered in the early 20th century when unusually high rates of bladder cancer were reported among workers in the dye industry. Aromatic amines are used in several industries, including the rubber, chemical, and textile industries. It’s thought that the aromatic amines can be metabolized in the body into substances that can bind to DNA and cause mutations, potentially leading to the development of cancer. However, it’s also important to note that not everyone exposed to these substances will develop cancer. The risk is likely influenced by other factors such as the level of exposure, the duration of exposure, and the individual’s genetic makeup and lifestyle factors. Incorrect answer option: A. Accurate. This answer is incorrect based on the current body of scientific research. Numerous studies have demonstrated a clear association between occupational exposure to aromatic amines and an increased risk of bladder cancer. 29. Correct answer: D. Medications that suppress contractility and foster urine retention. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) can impact the urinary system by suppressing bladder contractility and fostering urine retention. These medications inhibit the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, neurotransmitters which influence mood. However, they can also block acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that triggers bladder muscle contraction and emptying. Consequently, this anticholinergic effect can result in urinary retention and difficulty in voiding. Incorrect answer options: A. Medications that reduce the resistance at the bladder outlet. This is not accurate. TCAs do not work by reducing resistance at the bladder outlet. Alpha-blockers are the class of medications that can reduce resistance at the bladder outlet and thus facilitate urine flow. B. Medications that trigger detrusor muscle contractility and facilitate bladder emptying. This is the opposite of the effect of TCAs. These medications actually suppress detrusor muscle contractility, which may lead to urinary retention. C. Medications that amplify resistance at the bladder outlet. This is also incorrect. TCAs do not increase resistance at the bladder outlet. This effect is more typically associated with alpha-agonists, not TCAs. 30. Correct answer: B. “Mr. Canelo, I notice you seem anxious. Could you share your feelings about tomorrow’s procedure?” This response validates the patient’s emotional state and offers him an opportunity to share his concerns, fears, or questions about his upcoming surgery. It opens up a conversation and allows for therapeutic communication, which is crucial in addressing patient anxiety. Incorrect answer options: A. “Mr. Canelo, at this rate, you’ll exhaust both yourself and the hospital floors.” This response comes off as dismissive and sarcastic, which is not appropriate when dealing with a patient who is clearly anxious. C. “Good evening, Mr. Canelo. It was quite a pleasant day today, wasn’t it?” This response may be polite, but it sidesteps the issue at hand. The nurse should address the patient’s anxiety directly rather than try to divert the conversation. D. “Mr. Canelo, I understand you must be filled with worry. I’ll leave you alone with your thoughts.” While it is essential to recognize the patient’s distress, leaving the patient alone with his thoughts may increase his anxiety. The nurse’s role is to provide emotional support and help alleviate the patient’s concerns. 31. Correct answer: D. Painless blood in the urine. The most common initial symptom of bladder cancer is painless hematuria (blood in the urine), which can be visible (gross hematuria) or only detectable under a microscope (microscopic hematuria). This symptom can be intermittent and may be mistaken for a urinary tract infection or kidney stones. However, hematuria should always be evaluated to rule out more serious conditions like bladder cancer. Incorrect answer options: A. Pain in the flank due to a blockage in the ureter or a pelvic mass. While this may occur in later stages of bladder cancer due to tumor growth or metastasis, it is not typically the first symptom. This is more common in kidney disease or cancer. B. Frequent urination. Although frequent urination can be a symptom of bladder cancer, it is not the most common initial symptom. It is often seen in various conditions such as urinary tract infections, bladder stones, and prostate problems, and is more likely to occur in the later stages of bladder cancer. C. Constipation. Constipation is not a common symptom of bladder cancer. It may occur if the cancer has spread to other areas of the body, but it is not typically an initial symptom. 32. Correct answer: A. Antispasmodic agents. Antispasmodic agents, also known as anticholinergic or antimuscarinic drugs, can suppress contractility and encourage urine retention. These drugs work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that stimulates detrusor muscle contraction in the bladder, thus reducing the urgency and frequency of urination, and possibly leading to urine retention. Incorrect answer options: B. Relaxants for the external sphincter/striated muscle. While these medications do help to facilitate urine flow by reducing resistance at the bladder outlet, they do not specifically suppress bladder contractility or encourage urine retention. C. Beta-adrenergic medications. Beta-adrenergic medications generally do not have a significant direct effect on bladder function. They are more associated with cardiovascular and respiratory effects. D. Cholinergic medications. These are the opposite of antispasmodic agents. Cholinergic medications enhance the action of acetylcholine, thereby stimulating bladder contraction and promoting urine output, not retention. 33. Correct answer: A. It disrupts both DNA replication and RNA transcription processes. Thiotepa is an alkylating agent, a type of chemotherapy drug that works by attaching an alkyl group to the DNA molecule. This modification can disrupt both DNA replication and RNA transcription, processes that are critical for cell division and protein synthesis, respectively. Because cancer cells divide more rapidly than normal cells, they are more affected by this disruption, leading to cell death. Incorrect answer options: B. It solely interferes with the transcription of ribonucleic acid (RNA). While thiotepa can indeed disrupt RNA transcription, this is not it’s only mode of action. It also disrupts DNA replication. C. It solely disrupts the replication of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). Similarly, although thiotepa does disrupt DNA replication, this is not it’s only mode of action. It also interferes with RNA transcription. D. It changes the metabolic activity of cancer cells. While some cancer treatments do work by affecting the metabolic activity of cancer cells, this is not the primary action of alkylating agents like thiotepa. Their primary mechanism of action is to interfere with DNA replication and RNA transcription. 34. Correct answer: B. Inaccurate. The statement is inaccurate because all three factors mentioned—artificial sweeteners, pelvic irradiation, and chronic cystitis—have been linked to an increased risk of certain types of cancer. 1. Artificial Sweeteners: Early studies in animals suggested a potential link between saccharin, an artificial sweetener, and bladder cancer, leading to much debate and further research. However, subsequent studies have largely shown that artificial sweeteners are not associated with an increased risk of bladder cancer in humans. That said, the connection between artificial sweeteners and cancer risk is complex and may depend on a variety of factors, so this remains a topic of ongoing research. 2. Pelvic Irradiation: Radiation therapy is a well-known risk factor for secondary cancers, including bladder cancer. Patients who receive pelvic radiation for other cancers, such as prostate or cervical cancer, have an increased risk of developing bladder cancer later on. This risk is thought to be due to the damaging effects of ionizing radiation on cellular DNA. 3. Chronic Cystitis: Chronic inflammation of the bladder, or chronic cystitis, has been associated with an increased risk of bladder cancer. Chronic irritation and inflammation in the bladder can lead to cellular changes and damage over time, which can potentially progress to cancer. Incorrect answer option: A. Accurate. This statement is not entirely accurate. While the links between these factors and cancer are complex and depend on a variety of factors, there is evidence to suggest that pelvic irradiation and chronic cystitis can increase the risk of certain cancers, and the connection between artificial sweeteners and cancer risk remains a topic of ongoing research. 35. Correct answer: A. Medications that trigger detrusor muscle contractility and aid in bladder emptying. Cholinergic medications, also known as parasympathomimetic drugs, mimic the effects of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that stimulates the detrusor muscle of the bladder to contract. This promotes bladder emptying. This class of medication is often used to treat urinary retention, a condition where the bladder is unable to fully empty. Incorrect answer options: B. Medications that enhance resistance at the bladder outlet. This is not the primary action of cholinergic medications. Instead, these drugs aim to promote bladder emptying, not increase resistance. C. Medications that reduce resistance at the bladder outlet. While cholinergic medications do promote bladder emptying, they do not primarily work by reducing resistance at the bladder outlet. Instead, they stimulate bladder contraction. D. Medications that relax the internal sphincter muscle. While cholinergic medications can potentially influence the internal sphincter muscle, their primary action is to stimulate the detrusor muscle to contract and facilitate bladder emptying.Practice Mode
Exam Mode
Text Mode
Questions
B. No, that’s not correct.
B. Grade 2
C. Grade 3
D. Grade 4
B. Refrain from sitting for extended periods.
C. Limit bowel movements.
D. Inform about any changes in urinary frequency.
B. Not at all, there isn’t.
B. Intravesical administration.
C. Intraarterial administration.
D. Intrathecal administration.
B. Grade 2
C. Grade 3
D. Grade 4
B. Medications that reduce contractility and aid in urine retention.
C. Medications that encourage detrusor contractility and facilitate bladder emptying.
D. Medications that enhance the resistance at the bladder outlet.
B. Carcinoma of cuboidal cells.
C. Carcinoma of transitional cells.
D. Carcinoma of squamous cells.
B. Restrict the intake of fluids for the next 24 hours.
C. Instruct the patient on muscle-tightening exercises.
D. Educate the patient about the stoma irrigation procedure.
B. It’s at the top, the 1st place.
C. It’s positioned 8th.
D. It secured 2nd place.
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Glaucoma
D. Fistula
B. Medications that promote bladder emptying.
C. Medications that increase the resistance at the bladder outlet.
D. Medications that suppress contractility and foster urine storage.
B. A breach in the bladder.
C. Changed sensation in the perineal area due to the side effects of radiation therapy.
D. Intense stress stemming from her cancer diagnosis.
B. Grade 2
C. Grade 3
D. Grade 4
B. Grade 2
C. Grade 3
D. Grade 4
B. To study invasive characteristics.
C. To confirm stages T1-T4.
D. To verify the stage and grade of the tumor.
B. Recurrence of Carcinoma in situ (CIS).
C. Persistent reflux.
D. Excessive fatigue.
B. A malignancy that originates from the urothelial lining of the urinary tract.
C. A benign expansion of the urothelium triggered by inflammation or irritation.
D. An aggressive form of bladder cancer with poor prognosis.
B. Agents that stimulate beta-adrenergic receptors.
C. Medications that block alpha-adrenergic receptors.
D. Medications that stimulate alpha-adrenergic receptors.
B. Inaccurate
B. Drugs that suppress contractility and encourage urine retention.
C. Drugs that augment bladder outlet resistance.
D. Drugs that trigger detrusor muscle contractility and facilitate bladder emptying.
B. Advocate for the patient to have regular rest periods.
C. Order sedative medications for the patient to reduce anxiety.
D. Implement protective reverse isolation for the patient.
B. Grade 2 tumor
C. Grade 3 tumor
D. Grade 4 tumor
B. Grade 2 tumor
C. Grade 3 tumor
D. Grade 4 tumor
B. There has been no dilation of the stoma.
C. The skin wasn’t properly lubricated prior to the application of the pouch.
D. The faceplate of the pouch isn’t fitting the stoma properly.
B. 4 grades
C. 3 grades
D. 6 grades
B. 5% of cases
C. 50% of cases
D. 95% of cases
B. Inaccurate
B. Medications that trigger detrusor muscle contractility and facilitate bladder emptying.
C. Medications that amplify resistance at the bladder outlet.
D. Medications that suppress contractility and foster urine retention.
B. “Mr. Canelo, I notice you seem anxious. Could you share your feelings about tomorrow’s procedure?”
C. “Good evening, Mr. Canelo. It was quite a pleasant day today, wasn’t it?”
D. “Mr. Canelo, I understand you must be filled with worry. I’ll leave you alone with your thoughts.”
B. Frequent urination.
C. Constipation.
D. Painless blood in the urine.
B. Relaxants for the external sphincter/striated muscle.
C. Beta-adrenergic medications.
D. Cholinergic medications.
B. It solely interferes with the transcription of ribonucleic acid (RNA).
C. It solely disrupts the replication of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
D. It changes the metabolic activity of cancer cells.
B. Inaccurate
B. Medications that enhance resistance at the bladder outlet.
C. Medications that reduce resistance at the bladder outlet.
D. Medications that relax the internal sphincter muscle.Answers & Rationales